PloughBoy
Loyal
- Joined
- Dec 2, 2019
- Messages
- 9,782
Sorry, I am not going to argue about this, or try to correct no one about it. or address all of The "Translations" that have translated it, from the "Original Copied Manuscript" but judge for yourself. [and we know that many English translations are translated from other English translation instead from "The Orginal Copied Manuscript" The Koine Greek, Aramaic, New Testament Writings.]
2 Peter 1:20
English Revised Version
knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation.
American Standard Version
knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation.
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
While you first know this: No prophecy is its own exposition of the Scriptures.
King James Bible
Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
English Revised Version
knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation.
Webster's Bible Translation
Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
And my conclusions did not come from a Commentary but it backs my thoughts, about the above "translations" and that is why I presented a Commentaries view. on The "Text" in question, and how many "translators" translated the "Original Copied Manuscript" using "English Syntax", or on other Translations., To arise in directing ones thought patterns concerning the "text' at hand. [in other words, The lawyer is leading The Witness]
"Quote" Bible Hub: Search, Read, Study the Bible in Many Languages.
Is of any private interpretation.--Better, comes to be, or becomes of private interpretation. The word rendered "interpretation" occurs nowhere else in the New Testament; but the cognate verb occurs in Mark 4:34, where it is translated "expound." (See Note there.) There can be little doubt that "interpretation," or "solution," is the right rendering here, although others have been suggested. The main question however, is the meaning of the word rendered "private," which may also mean "its own." Hence three explanations are possible. The term may refer (1) to the recipients of the prophecies--that we may not expound prophecy according to our own fancy; or (2) to the utterers of the prophecies--that the prophets had not the power of expounding their own prophecies; or (3) to the prophecies themselves--that no prophecy comes to be of its own interpretation, i.e., no prophecy explains itself. The guide to the right explanation is 2Peter 1:21, which gives the reason why "no prophecy of the scripture," &c. This consideration excludes (3); for 2Peter 1:21 yields no sense as showing why prophecy does not interpret itself. Either of the other two explanations may be right. (1) If prophecy came "by the will of man," then it might be interpreted according to man's fancy. But it did not so come; consequently the interpretation must be sought elsewhere--viz., at the same source from which the prophecy itself proceeded. (2) If the prophets spoke just as they pleased, they would be the best exponents of what they meant. But they spoke under divine influence, and therefore need not know the import of their own words. Prophecy must be explained by prophecy and by history, not by the individual prophet. The whole body of prophecy, "the prophetic word" (2Peter 1:19), is our lamp in the wilderness, not the private dictaof any one seer. In modern phraseology, interpretation must be comparative and scientific. This view is strengthened by comparing 1Peter 1:10-12, where it is stated that the prophets did not know how or when their own predictions would be fulfilled. Possibly this passage is meant to refer to 1Peter 1:10-12, and if so, we have a mark of genuineness; a forger would have made the reference more clear. If the coincidence is accidental, this also points in the same direction; in any case, the coincidence is worth noting. . . .
Pulpit Commentary
Verse 20. - Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the Scripture is of any private interpretation. By "knowing this first" (γινώσκοντες) is meant that we must recognize this truth as of primary importance, or, before we commence the study of prophecy; the phrase occurs again in chapter 2 Peter 3:3. The literal translation of the following clause is, "that all prophecy of Scripture [there is no article] is not; all... not" (πᾶσα... οὐ) being a common Hebraism for none, οὑδεμία; but the verb is not ἔστι, "is," but γίνεται, "becomes, arises, comes into being." The word for "private" is ἰδίας, "special," or commonly, "one's own" (see 1 Peter 3:1, 5; chapter 2 Peter 2:16, 22; 3:3, 16, 17). The word rendered "interpretation" is ἐπιλύσεως, which is found nowhere else in the New Testament; the corresponding verb occurs in Mark 4:34, "He expounded all things;" and Acts 19:39, "It shall be determined or settled." These considerations, strengthened by the context, seem to guide us to the following explanation: No prophecy of Scripture arises from the prophet's own interpretation of the vision presented to his mind; for it was from God that the prophecy was brought, and men spoke as they were borne on by the Holy Spirit. This view of the passage is also supported by the remarkable parallel in the First Epistle (1 Peter 1:10-12). The prophets searched diligently into the meaning of the revelation vouchsafed to them; they did not always comprehend it in all its details; they could not interpret it to themselves; the written prophecy arose out of the interpretation of the revelation supplied by the same Spirit from whom the revelation itself proceeded. Therefore the prophetic books of Holy Scripture are sacred and precious, and we do well in giving heed to them; though the day-star of the Lord's own presence, shining in the illuminated heart, is holier still. Other views of this difficult passage are: Prophecy is not its own interpreter; the guidance of the Spirit is necessary. Or, prophecy is not a matter for the private interpretation of the readers; only the Holy Spirit can explain it. But the explanation adopted seems most accordant with the Greek words and with the general sense of the context (compare St. Paul's teaching in 1 Corinthians 12:10). The gifts of the Spirit are divided as he will; to one man are given "divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues." Not every one, it seems, who had the first gift, had also the latter. Tongues and the interpretation of tongues were two distinct gifts. It may be so with prophecy and the interpretation of prophecy.
Maybe some can see my point, especially some who are familiar with the art of "Linguistics"
2 Peter 1:20
English Revised Version
knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation.
American Standard Version
knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation.
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
While you first know this: No prophecy is its own exposition of the Scriptures.
King James Bible
Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
English Revised Version
knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation.
Webster's Bible Translation
Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
And my conclusions did not come from a Commentary but it backs my thoughts, about the above "translations" and that is why I presented a Commentaries view. on The "Text" in question, and how many "translators" translated the "Original Copied Manuscript" using "English Syntax", or on other Translations., To arise in directing ones thought patterns concerning the "text' at hand. [in other words, The lawyer is leading The Witness]
"Quote" Bible Hub: Search, Read, Study the Bible in Many Languages.
Is of any private interpretation.--Better, comes to be, or becomes of private interpretation. The word rendered "interpretation" occurs nowhere else in the New Testament; but the cognate verb occurs in Mark 4:34, where it is translated "expound." (See Note there.) There can be little doubt that "interpretation," or "solution," is the right rendering here, although others have been suggested. The main question however, is the meaning of the word rendered "private," which may also mean "its own." Hence three explanations are possible. The term may refer (1) to the recipients of the prophecies--that we may not expound prophecy according to our own fancy; or (2) to the utterers of the prophecies--that the prophets had not the power of expounding their own prophecies; or (3) to the prophecies themselves--that no prophecy comes to be of its own interpretation, i.e., no prophecy explains itself. The guide to the right explanation is 2Peter 1:21, which gives the reason why "no prophecy of the scripture," &c. This consideration excludes (3); for 2Peter 1:21 yields no sense as showing why prophecy does not interpret itself. Either of the other two explanations may be right. (1) If prophecy came "by the will of man," then it might be interpreted according to man's fancy. But it did not so come; consequently the interpretation must be sought elsewhere--viz., at the same source from which the prophecy itself proceeded. (2) If the prophets spoke just as they pleased, they would be the best exponents of what they meant. But they spoke under divine influence, and therefore need not know the import of their own words. Prophecy must be explained by prophecy and by history, not by the individual prophet. The whole body of prophecy, "the prophetic word" (2Peter 1:19), is our lamp in the wilderness, not the private dictaof any one seer. In modern phraseology, interpretation must be comparative and scientific. This view is strengthened by comparing 1Peter 1:10-12, where it is stated that the prophets did not know how or when their own predictions would be fulfilled. Possibly this passage is meant to refer to 1Peter 1:10-12, and if so, we have a mark of genuineness; a forger would have made the reference more clear. If the coincidence is accidental, this also points in the same direction; in any case, the coincidence is worth noting. . . .
Pulpit Commentary
Verse 20. - Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the Scripture is of any private interpretation. By "knowing this first" (γινώσκοντες) is meant that we must recognize this truth as of primary importance, or, before we commence the study of prophecy; the phrase occurs again in chapter 2 Peter 3:3. The literal translation of the following clause is, "that all prophecy of Scripture [there is no article] is not; all... not" (πᾶσα... οὐ) being a common Hebraism for none, οὑδεμία; but the verb is not ἔστι, "is," but γίνεται, "becomes, arises, comes into being." The word for "private" is ἰδίας, "special," or commonly, "one's own" (see 1 Peter 3:1, 5; chapter 2 Peter 2:16, 22; 3:3, 16, 17). The word rendered "interpretation" is ἐπιλύσεως, which is found nowhere else in the New Testament; the corresponding verb occurs in Mark 4:34, "He expounded all things;" and Acts 19:39, "It shall be determined or settled." These considerations, strengthened by the context, seem to guide us to the following explanation: No prophecy of Scripture arises from the prophet's own interpretation of the vision presented to his mind; for it was from God that the prophecy was brought, and men spoke as they were borne on by the Holy Spirit. This view of the passage is also supported by the remarkable parallel in the First Epistle (1 Peter 1:10-12). The prophets searched diligently into the meaning of the revelation vouchsafed to them; they did not always comprehend it in all its details; they could not interpret it to themselves; the written prophecy arose out of the interpretation of the revelation supplied by the same Spirit from whom the revelation itself proceeded. Therefore the prophetic books of Holy Scripture are sacred and precious, and we do well in giving heed to them; though the day-star of the Lord's own presence, shining in the illuminated heart, is holier still. Other views of this difficult passage are: Prophecy is not its own interpreter; the guidance of the Spirit is necessary. Or, prophecy is not a matter for the private interpretation of the readers; only the Holy Spirit can explain it. But the explanation adopted seems most accordant with the Greek words and with the general sense of the context (compare St. Paul's teaching in 1 Corinthians 12:10). The gifts of the Spirit are divided as he will; to one man are given "divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues." Not every one, it seems, who had the first gift, had also the latter. Tongues and the interpretation of tongues were two distinct gifts. It may be so with prophecy and the interpretation of prophecy.
Maybe some can see my point, especially some who are familiar with the art of "Linguistics"
