John as far as I know was never baptised. He was sent to prepare the way for Messiah's kingdome: he told Christ he needed to be baptised by Him. John's baptism was the old covanant culmanation of preperation: repentance was a large part of that for Israel, bringing forth the fruits of repentance. However, with Christ it was to fullfill all reighteousness. Some of the ones he baptised were to become the deciples of Christ. If you take this baptism as an entrance into the kingdom, or a door held open by John, Who himself remained of the old covenant: "He must increse, and I must decreese."--Then there is no problem with the statment of Christ. The least in the kingdom, the ones who are now off following Jesus, would be greater. This is in no way minimises John as a person or a ransomed child of God, rather it elevates the lowest of ministries in the new covanant. This I believe is the import of this scriptural observation. Thanks for the question...DGB
