Andyindauk
Active
- Joined
- Oct 22, 2019
- Messages
- 710
Again, departing from the region of Tyre and Sidon, He came through the midst of the region of Decapolis to the Sea of Galilee. Then they brought to Him one who was deaf and had an impediment in his speech, and they begged Him to put His hand on him. And He took him aside from the multitude, and put His fingers in his ears, and He spat and touched his tongue. Then, looking up to heaven, He sighed, and said to him, “Ephphatha,” that is, “Be opened.” Immediately his ears were opened, and the impediment of his tongue was loosed, and he spoke plainly. Then He commanded them that they should tell no one; but the more He commanded them, the more widely they proclaimed it. And they were astonished beyond measure, saying, “He has done all things well. He makes both the deaf to hear and the mute to speak.” Mark 7:31-37
Jesus is presented with a deaf man with a speech impediment and a request to heal him. Now this guy is somehow treated differently from most other healings. Hitherto healing was instant but on this occasion Jesus makes a bit of a meal of it; it's like He performs a minor operation on the man so instead of Jesus just saying, be healed, He puts a finger in the patient's ears and spits and uses His spittle by touching the guy's tongue with it and says 'Ephaphatha' which translates, be open. Then immediately the man can hear fine and he talks normally. This is similar to John 9:1-7. So why is it that this man's condition seemed a bit harder for Jesus to heal than say the Centurion's servant who was close to death but was healed at a distance Luke 7:1-10? When I'm lifting weights at the gym, they tell me not to jerk the weights but lift them slowly to get maximum benefit. In the same way, Jesus is showing total control over illness, He can heal instantly or slowly. He doesn't need a sledge hammer to crack a nut!
But why does Jesus time and again, instruct the recipients of miracles to stay quiet? Wouldn't it make more sense if miracles were broadcast far and wide to the glory of God?
Jesus was never a good showman. Notice, right at the beginning, Jesus took the man aside from the multitude. Why? Miracles were performed more out of love for the patient than as a publicity stunt. There were exceptions, John 9:1-7. There are similarities between these two miracles; neither were instant results. In the John 9 miracle, Jesus makes a clay from His spittle. It's likely that He did that to wind up the Pharisees, knowing that they'd view this making clay on the Sabbath would bring condemnation from the Pharisees for breaking their mad regulations, which clearly had no scriptural authority. That was a fringe benefit, the real reason he healed this man was out of love for the man.
Questions from this miracle-
Is there a place today for high publicity healing services?
Was there ever an instance of the sufferer falling over in the Spirit?
Was there ever recorded offertory bags being passed around after the miracle?
What's the difference between Acts 3:6-16 and Matthew 7:22?
Jesus is presented with a deaf man with a speech impediment and a request to heal him. Now this guy is somehow treated differently from most other healings. Hitherto healing was instant but on this occasion Jesus makes a bit of a meal of it; it's like He performs a minor operation on the man so instead of Jesus just saying, be healed, He puts a finger in the patient's ears and spits and uses His spittle by touching the guy's tongue with it and says 'Ephaphatha' which translates, be open. Then immediately the man can hear fine and he talks normally. This is similar to John 9:1-7. So why is it that this man's condition seemed a bit harder for Jesus to heal than say the Centurion's servant who was close to death but was healed at a distance Luke 7:1-10? When I'm lifting weights at the gym, they tell me not to jerk the weights but lift them slowly to get maximum benefit. In the same way, Jesus is showing total control over illness, He can heal instantly or slowly. He doesn't need a sledge hammer to crack a nut!
But why does Jesus time and again, instruct the recipients of miracles to stay quiet? Wouldn't it make more sense if miracles were broadcast far and wide to the glory of God?
Jesus was never a good showman. Notice, right at the beginning, Jesus took the man aside from the multitude. Why? Miracles were performed more out of love for the patient than as a publicity stunt. There were exceptions, John 9:1-7. There are similarities between these two miracles; neither were instant results. In the John 9 miracle, Jesus makes a clay from His spittle. It's likely that He did that to wind up the Pharisees, knowing that they'd view this making clay on the Sabbath would bring condemnation from the Pharisees for breaking their mad regulations, which clearly had no scriptural authority. That was a fringe benefit, the real reason he healed this man was out of love for the man.
Questions from this miracle-
Is there a place today for high publicity healing services?
Was there ever an instance of the sufferer falling over in the Spirit?
Was there ever recorded offertory bags being passed around after the miracle?
What's the difference between Acts 3:6-16 and Matthew 7:22?