DHC
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- Jan 30, 2013
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The law doesn't fix sin, it reveals sin.
Rom 3:20; because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.
In fact, there is no other way sin is revealed. While we might not have had the written law, we are still subjected to it.
Rom 2:12 When the Gentiles sin, they will be destroyed, even though they never had God's written law. And the Jews, who do have God's law, will be judged by that law when they fail to obey it.
Rom 2:13 For merely listening to the law doesn't make us right with God. It is obeying the law that makes us right in His sight.
Rom 2:14 Even Gentiles, who do not have God's written law, show that they know His law when they instinctively obey it, even without having heard it.
Rom 2:15 They demonstrate that God's law is written in their hearts, for their own conscience and thoughts either accuse them or tell them they are doing right.
Mat 5:17; "Don't misunderstand why I have come. I did not come to abolish the law of Moses or the writings of the prophets. No, I came to accomplish their purpose.
Mat 5:18; I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not even the smallest detail of God's law will disappear until its purpose is achieved.
The pharisees believed Gentiles were subject to the law.
Acts 15:5 But then some of the believers who belonged to the sect of the Pharisees stood up and insisted, "The Gentile converts must be circumcised and required to follow the law of Moses."
Paul says Gentiles following the law, will be accepted by God. Jews that don't follow the law will be rejected by God.
Rom 2:25; The Jewish ceremony of circumcision has value only if you obey God's law. But if you don't obey God's law, you are no better off than an uncircumcised Gentile.
Rom 2:26; And if the Gentiles obey God's law, won't God declare them to be His own people?
The law reveals sin to the entire world, not just the Jews.
Rom 3:19; Obviously, the law applies to those to whom it was given, for its purpose is to keep people from having excuses, and to show that the entire world is guilty before God.
If you have heard the law, it applies to you.
Rom 5:13; Yes, people sinned even before the law was given. But it was not counted as sin because there was not yet any law to break.
Without the law, there is no sin. If Gentiles aren't under the law, we don't need Jesus, because we can't sin.
Rom 2:27; In fact, uncircumcised Gentiles who keep God's law will condemn you Jews who are circumcised and possess God's law but don't obey it.
Sin is still sin, even under the new covenant.
Gal 3:17; This is what I am trying to say: The agreement God made with Abraham could not be canceled 430 years later when God gave the law to Moses. God would be breaking His promise.
The part that changed was how sin is forgiven and reconciled.
Hello B-A-C, thank you for the reply.
I read your post #59 and noticed a number of erroneous statements.
Here is the first statement you made.
"In fact, there is no other way sin is revealed. While we might not have had the written law, we are still subjected to it."
Sin can and has been revealed in ways other than just the knowledge of the law of Moses.
Have a read of the verse below.
Isaiah 6
5 Then I said, Woe is me, for I am ruined!
Because I am a man of unclean lips,
And I live among a people of unclean lips;
For my eyes have seen the King, the Lord of hosts.
A revelation from God will reveal the sinful condition. So your statement
that "there is no other way sin is revealed". Is wholly incorrect and not Biblical.
Also B-A-C, the law applies to those to whom it is given. If you are not a citizen of Israel
then the law of Moses does not apply to you.
I was rather amazed at the next statement of yours.
"The pharisees believed Gentiles were subject to the law.
Acts 15:5 But then some of the believers who belonged to the sect of the Pharisees stood up and insisted, The Gentile converts must be circumcised and required to follow the law of Moses."
If you read a bit further on in the book of Acts. Both Peter and James refute the idea that the Gentiles should be 'under the law'.
Acts 15
10 Now therefore why do you put God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke(law) which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear?
11 But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are.
B-A-C according to the verse above you are putting God to the test. Gentiles must never be placed under the law of Moses!
Regardless of any law or transgression all will die B-A-C.
Romans 5
18 So then as through one transgression (sin) there resulted condemnation to all men
Death was introduced to humanity by Adam, through the one transgression.
By the one sin death was experienced by all. To be more accurate in the portrayal
of the scripture in respect of sin.
20 The Law came in so that the transgression would increase;
Law actually increases sin, law does not reduce sin B-A-C. I would not
construct a theology on the second chapter of Romans in respect of the law.
Yet again B-A-C you are making statements that are not supported by the scripture.
You then said.
"If you have heard the law, it applies to you."
Where did you get this idea from B-A-C? The law of Moses was given
to the nation of Israel. The book of Exodus rigidly enforces this truth.
A Gentile may hear or read a law listed in the law of Moses. But this does
not mean they are under the jurisdiction of that law. Only those who signed
up to the covenant are bound by the law of Moses.
If you follow your argument that a hearer of the law is under the law.
Then naturaly if one read the whole law then one is under the whole law.
All 600 or more laws apply to the one who has read the law of Moses?
This is absurd and ridiculous B-A-C. Not even Paul himself was under the
law.
1 Corinthians 9:20
To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might win Jews; to those who are under the Law,
as under the Law though not being myself under the Law
There you have it B-A-C, Paul knew the law verbatim. But Paul declared he was not under the law!
The Mosaic Law does not grant salvation B-A-C. Written law is useless
in dealing with sin. Law does bring a knowledge of sin but only to those
who have received the revelation from God in regards to sin. You can listen
to the law all day long without ever recognising that you are a sinner.
Now for your statement that does highlight your confused theology.
Without the law, there is no sin. If Gentiles aren't under the law, we don't need Jesus, because we can't sin.
Romans 2
12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law
You might read that line again.
Sinned without the law!
Gentiles sinned deeply without any law and so did the Jews who had the law.
Now for the refutation of your ridiculous statement B-A-C.
"If Gentiles aren't under the law, we don't need Jesus"
Using the logic you have employed then the entire nation of Israel
will accept Jesus. For the nation of Israel received the law, hence they
know sin, thus they will recognize and submit to Jesus??
The opposite is true, the Gentiles who did not have the law accepted
the Gospel. The Jews who had the law rejected the Gospel. Fact!
