Whose Bible? The one given to you by the Roman Catholic Church? And elevated to Deity by Martin Luther?
And which Old Testament? The one invented by the Masoretic Jews after the year 400 AD? The descendants of the Pharisees? Or the OT that Jesus used (called the Septuagint)? It's a shame that Christians actually have no clue about the origin of their "Divine Revelation."
Again, which Bible? However, where does the Bible say that it is the "plumb-line"? That doctrine conflicts with the teaching of Jesus here:
Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
(John 16:13 KJV)
Your own Bible says that the Spirit of truth shall guide you, not the Bible. I'm confused, then, as to why you don't believe what your own Bible says.
Ahh... so then you have created your own Bible. You have decided your own canon. Am I mistaken in this? And if not you, then who? Who decided what books you are to believe?
And since the Bible teaches no such thing as the "written word," you have created your own doctrines that have no scriptural support. Perhaps I am mistaken, though, and you can show me otherwise?
The Bible is not the Word of God because the Bible defines what the Word of God is (there are two of them), and it does not include itself in its own definition. This is why we hold that the Bible
contains the Word of God (a record of
both of them - LOGOS and RHEMA), but IS not the Word of God itself. This is an important distinction - one that leads to either life, or leads to death. One that leads to Truth, or leads to Heresy.
Is this, then, the Word of God or not?
For in the day that I brought your ancestors out of the land of Egypt, I did not speak to them or command them concerning burnt offerings and sacrifices.
(Jeremiah 7:22 NRSV)
And what of this proclamation of the prophet?
How can you say, "We are wise, and the LAW (Bible-TORAH, etc.) of the LORD is with us," when, in fact, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie?
(Jeremiah 8:8 NRSV)
If the Bible itself says that it has been made into a lie by the scribes (the people who copy the text) then upon what basis can a claim be made that the Bible is "the only source of Divine truth"? While I acknowledge that the Statement of Faith of this website (and that of numerous churches and denominations) holds that the Bible is inerrant, that's rather troublesome given the facts. And we are still left with the question, "Which Bible?"
Might you also hold the belief that the Bible is inerrant then?
And yet I've already shown that the Bible itself does not support this view that YOU are responsible for ensuring what is true or not. Allow me to repeat, then:
Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
(John 16:13 KJV)
In light of this scripture, how can you then claim that YOU are to guide yourself into all truth? That just doesn't make sense to me.
And yet, we have physical evidence from the Dead Sea Scrolls that proves there were numerous versions of the OT that do not agree with one another during the time of Christ. There was no accuracy.
All the evidence we possess points to textual pluralism in the Second Temple era, as opposed to the notion of a single sacred consonantal text as later conceived.
- Cohen, Menachem (1979). "The idea of the sanctity of the biblical text and the science of textual criticism".
LINK
The article is well worth the read, as it only pertains to the Hebrew Bible, and dispels this Christian myth that there was only one sanctified collection of OT scripture where "every word is important, and accuracy is essential." However, the only manuscripts that preserve any measure of accuracy for the OT text would be the Septuagint.
I provide a LINK to my other post instead of repeating myself here.
And yet, Paul's "My Gospel" contradicts the Gospel that Jesus taught. But if one decides that Paul is inerrant like the Pope, then why even discuss anything? The four Gospel books of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were written after the epistles of Paul, and yet there is nothing mentioned within them that gives any indication that the Twelve were to teach something different or in addition to what Jesus taught. Jesus did not say, "HEY
!! Wait until I give this guy Paul special direct Revelation of a new Gospel, and then go spread that."
Belief should be informed by facts, instead of facts being rejected because of religious emotion and tradition.
As I've said, Religious Emotion is what created the Religious Fiction of what is commonly understood as Hell.
You've been able to divest yourself of that fiction, but might there be more?
Hmm... yet Paul attributed the prophecy of Isaiah 66:19 to himself. That's what caused the riot in Acts 22.
Then he said to me, 'Go, for I will send you far away to the Gentiles.'" Up to this point they listened to him, but then they shouted, "Away with such a fellow from the earth! For he should not be allowed to live."
(Acts 22:21-22 NRSV)
If the writings of Paul are deified and unable to be questioned, then Paul has supplanted the teachings of Jesus, and indeed, Jesus has been dispensed with.
The only honest path of integrity is to apply the teachings of Jesus to any and ALL words penned by others no matter who. One should not make Paul into an infallible Pope. (Should we?)
The peace and truth of Jesus,
Rhema