Why does God send people to hell?

[complete]

No man also having drunk old wine straightway desireth new: for he saith, The old is better.​

- Luke 5:39 KJV


This isn't hard. I am perplexed as to why my question confuses you.

The thing is, do we now nullify the Teachings of Jesus? Pauline Christians dispense with the Teachings of Jesus as being irrelevant to one's salvation. You do this by means of racism - Jew v. Gentile, a concept that even Paul rejected. While Jesus may have been sent first to the Jew, the Truth that he taught came from God for the whole World.

But since it seems that you really do reject (nullify) the Teachings of Jesus, then his (Jesus) command to PRAY can just be ignored. However, I can show you why my sins were forgiven using only the words of the Lord Jesus.

After this manner therefore PRAY (written in the Imperative Mood to signify a command) Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. ... And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.​

- Matthew 6:9, 12 KJV

But if you object to the word "debt" ....

And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.​

- Luke 11:4 KJV

My sins have been forgiven because I've asked the Father TO forgive them, placing my faith in the LOGOS (Teachings) of Jesus.

Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:​

- Acts 13:38 KJV

(Ahh... but I forget you think this applies only to Jews.)

It would seem that Forgiveness through Repentance is not part of your faith, since...


So then your "Gospel" removes these words of Christ himself because they were "earthly." In the name of Jesus, your belief removes the words of Jesus? Where does one stop removing? Everything the Lord ever said was during his Earthly Ministry.

I can see why you would no longer wish to even think about the true Gospel that Jesus taught.


Once more, then, you have removed part of the Teaching of Jesus, thereby rejecting the Gospel that He taught. Is that wise?

Consider, though. Here, you have removed Jesus' teaching about the forgiveness of sins based on the phrase "Lamb of God" attributed to John the Baptist in the Gospel named John. So why is this phrase not found in Mark? Why is it missing in Luke? Why hadn't Matthew recorded John the Baptist teaching this since it is SO important that it literally has caused you to remove words from the Gospel of Christ Jesus?

If one is actually allowed to look at what is written, the Gospel named John is problematic. "John" states that Jesus was crucified during the time when the Passover Lambs were killed. Yet Matthew, Mark, and Luke clearly have Jesus eating the Passover meal. Well, it's hard to eat the Passover meal when one is dead. Whoever wrote John (and you'll find it's Lazarus if you look closely) was so enamored with the epiphany that Jesus was the Passover Lamb (something that Jesus never, ever taught), that he changed the narrative of the crucifixion.

This turns the Forgiveness of Sin by the Father through repentance (the very Gospel that Jesus and Peter taught) into a Payment for Sin by this "shed blood of Christ." Why would anyone turn the Son of God into a human blood sacrifice offered to the gods? (Okay, just one God.)

But I do understand why you would not like to continue. I would, though, like you to ask yourself -

How can you forgive a debt that's been paid?​

And how can one pay a debt that's been forgiven?​

In the Truth of the Lord's teaching,
Rhema

Hello @Rhema,

You have made a great deal of assumptions: and have judged me and passed sentence. So be it. My reply was not complete as I intimated, it is still a work in progress, for I search for the Scriptures within the words of The Lord Jesus Christ which refer to the forgiveness of sins as it applies to me, as a gentile believer, as you requested. Perhaps you can point me to a relevant verse. but I will not sit under your condemnation, when my Saviour has received me.

In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[Garee]

I believe you are clueless and have no idea about what I'm saying.

There is only one gospel taught by the unseen Holy Father the one good teaching master.

No gospel of the apostles like Jesus our brother in the Lord, dying mankind.

 

[Rhema]

You have made a great deal of assumptions:

No, I have not. (Might you list one as an example?) I'm fairly sure that I well understand what you've written. You've made a differentiation of two Gospels based upon race (Jew and Gentile). A differentiation based upon race is racism by definition, not assumption. But I can see where that might irk your emotions.

and have judged me and passed sentence.

I have not. When I ask questions, they are questions, not judgments in the form of a question. But you have made some rather startling statements that I've found to be contradictory, and I am truly trying to understand your faith. Please read through my last post without imputing condemnation. It's not there. But you did present parts of Jesus' Gospel as being only valid while He was on earth. How does one identify which parts to cut out and which parts to leave in?

My reply was not complete as I intimated, it is still a work in progress,

Intimate: to make clear what you think or want without saying it directly:

My apologies, I guess I need things said directly, since I don't like making assumptions. But here is what you actually said:

* I have to leave this here for the moment, Rhema.

This sounds much more like your previous "Goodbye" instead of "I'll need some more time to complete my reply because I'm thinking some things over." Again, it sounds more like, "I'm going to leave this alone." rather than "I'm working on it."

I search for the Scriptures within the words of The Lord Jesus Christ which refer to the forgiveness of sins as it applies to me, as a gentile believer, as you requested.

My request specified no such thing as "you, a gentile believer." I did not discriminate nor differentiate between Jew and Gentile. If the teachings of Jesus don't apply to all humans, then they apply to none, as:

There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.​

- Galatians 3:28 KJV

Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.​

- Colossians 3:11 KJV

Perhaps you can point me to a relevant verse.

But my entire last post was a relevant verse, and instead of continuing with the Socratic Method, I posted my witness. I don't know how I could make this more clear:

I can show you why my sins were forgiven using only the words of the Lord Jesus.

After this manner therefore PRAY (written in the Imperative Mood to signify a command) Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. ... And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.​

- Matthew 6:9, 12 KJV

But if one objects to the word "debt" ....

And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.​

- Luke 11:4 KJV

My sins have been forgiven because I've asked the Father TO forgive them, placing my faith in the LOGOS (Teachings) of Jesus.

... rather than the teachings of Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice).

but I will not sit under your condemnation, when my Saviour has received me.

I am truly sorry that I offended you. Quite a number of posts ago I acknowledged that your Saviour had "received" you. I just wanted to know why you believe all your sins were forgiven as opposed to being "paid for."

In Christ Jesus
Chris

In the truth of the Teaching of Jesus,
Rhema

 

[complete]

Hello @Rhema, reply #397

Thank you for your response.

* You asked me in a previous post, to show you WHY my sins were forgiven, using only the words of the Lord Jesus in the gospels. Though I know that the ministry of the Lord Jesus Christ did not end at His death, but continued after His ascension, through the ministry of those whom He appointed: but I believe that you require that I answer with the words of the Lord spoken during His earthly ministry (i.e.,from the gospel record)..

* In regard to the subject of forgiveness of sins, we must remember that the words spoken were obviously spoken prior to His sacrificial offering of Himself, as The Lamb of God, which said John the Baptist, 'taketh away the sin of the world.' (John 1:9) .

* Mat 6:12 ' And forgive (G863 - aphiēmi) us our debts (G3783), as we forgive our debtors.' This appears to be the first usage of the word, 'forgive' in the gospels: The word having the meaning:-

aphiēmi​

From G575 and ἵημι hiēmi [to send; an intensive form of εἶμι eimi (to go)]; to send forth, in various applications​

Translated variously as: - cry, forgive, forsake, lay aside, leave, let (alone, be, go, have), omit, put (send) away, remit, suffer, yield up.​

* Forgiveness was conditional during the Lord's earthly ministry.

'For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you:
But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.
(Mat 6:14-15)

* I, as a gentile, would have been 'without God', and 'without Christ' and 'without hope in the world' at that time. The door was only opened to gentiles in Acts 10, and that was only to make Israel jealous ( Romans 11:11) .Salvation was only sent to the Gentile, apart from Israel, after Acts 28:28. 'Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.'

* I have to leave this here for the moment, Rhema.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

No man also having drunk old wine straightway desireth new: for he saith, The old is better.​

- Luke 5:39 KJV​

​

​

This isn't hard. I am perplexed as to why my question confuses you.​

​

The thing is, do we now nullify the Teachings of Jesus? Pauline Christians dispense with the Teachings of Jesus as being irrelevant to one's salvation. You do this by means of racism - Jew v. Gentile, a concept that even Paul rejected. While Jesus may have been sent first to the Jew, the Truth that he taught came from God for the whole World.​

* No, I do not nullify the Teachings of Jesus. There is no racism either! However sometimes it is necessary to distinguish to whom something is spoken or written, in order to ensure that we do not wrongly apply a statement written or spoken by the Lord Jesus Christ, or any anyone else in Scripture.

But since it seems that you really do reject (nullify) the Teachings of Jesus, then his (Jesus) command to PRAY can just be ignored. However, I can show you why my sins were forgiven using only the words of the Lord Jesus.​

​

After this manner therefore PRAY (written in the Imperative Mood to signify a command) Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. ... And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.​

- Matthew 6:9, 12 KJV​

* That cannot be used as a support text for WHY I was forgiven for my sins, (ie., The question you asked)

But if you object to the word "debt" ....​

​

And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.​

- Luke 11:4 KJV​

​

My sins have been forgiven because I've asked the Father TO forgive them, placing my faith in the LOGOS (Teachings) of Jesus.​

​

Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:​

- Acts 13:38 KJV​

​

(Ahh... but I forget you think this applies only to Jews.)​

​

It would seem that Forgiveness through Repentance is not part of your faith, since...​

* Yes, I too asked God to forgive me for my sins.

So then your "Gospel" removes these words of Christ himself because they were "earthly." In the name of Jesus, your belief removes the words of Jesus? Where does one stop removing? Everything the Lord ever said was during his Earthly Ministry.​

* I don't know where you got this idea. I believe all that is written in the Word of God.

I can see why you would no longer wish to even think about the true Gospel that Jesus taught.​

* I don't know what you are referring to.

Once more, then, you have removed part of the Teaching of Jesus, thereby rejecting the Gospel that He taught. Is that wise?​

* I have removed nothing.

Consider, though. Here, you have removed Jesus' teaching about the forgiveness of sins based on the phrase "Lamb of God" attributed to John the Baptist in the Gospel named John. So why is this phrase not found in Mark? Why is it missing in Luke? Why hadn't Matthew recorded John the Baptist teaching this since it is SO important that it literally has caused you to remove words from the Gospel of Christ Jesus?​

* I have removed nothing, merely quoted the words of John the Baptist, which I believed had relevance

If one is actually allowed to look at what is written, the Gospel named John is problematic. "John" states that Jesus was crucified during the time when the Passover Lambs were killed. Yet Matthew, Mark, and Luke clearly have Jesus eating the Passover meal. Well, it's hard to eat the Passover meal when one is dead. Whoever wrote John (and you'll find it's Lazarus if you look closely) was so enamored with the epiphany that Jesus was the Passover Lamb (something that Jesus never, ever taught), that he changed the narrative of the crucifixion.​

* I can't comment on this because I do not understand what you are saying or why?

This turns the Forgiveness of Sin by the Father through repentance (the very Gospel that Jesus and Peter taught) into a Payment for Sin by this "shed blood of Christ." Why would anyone turn the Son of God into a human blood sacrifice offered to the gods? (Okay, just one God.)​

​

But I do understand why you would not like to continue. I would, though, like you to ask yourself -​

​

How can you forgive a debt that's been paid?​

And how can one pay a debt that's been forgiven?​

​

In the Truth of the Lord's teaching,​

Rhema​

* This is totally confusing.

It seems we cannot communicate with each other, Rhema, for we do not speak the same language.

Within the love of Christ our Saviour
Chris

 

[complete]

No, I have not. (Might you list one as an example?) I'm fairly sure that I well understand what you've written. You've made a differentiation of two Gospels based upon race (Jew and Gentile). A differentiation based upon race is racism by definition, not assumption. But I can see where that might irk your emotions.

Hello @Rhema.

No racism involved.

I have not. When I ask questions, they are questions, not judgments in the form of a question. But you have made some rather startling statements that I've found to be contradictory, and I am truly trying to understand your faith. Please read through my last post without imputing condemnation. It's not there. But you did present parts of Jesus' Gospel as being only valid while He was on earth. How does one identify which parts to cut out and which parts to leave in?

* That was not my intent.

Intimate: to make clear what you think or want without saying it directly:

My apologies, I guess I need things said directly, since I don't like making assumptions. But here is what you actually said:

This sounds much more like your previous "Goodbye" instead of "I'll need some more time to complete my reply because I'm thinking some things over." Again, it sounds more like, "I'm going to leave this alone." rather than "I'm working on it."

* I would love to continue discussing this with you, but we do not appear to be able to communicate.

My request specified no such thing as "you, a gentile believer." I did not discriminate nor differentiate between Jew and Gentile. If the teachings of Jesus don't apply to all humans, then they apply to none, as:

There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.​

- Galatians 3:28 KJV

Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.​

- Colossians 3:11 KJV

* At this present time, in the body of Christ there is no such distinction, but that was not always so.

But my entire last post was a relevant verse, and instead of continuing with the Socratic Method, I posted my witness. I don't know how I could make this more clear:

... rather than the teachings of Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice).


I am truly sorry that I offended you. Quite a number of posts ago I acknowledged that your Saviour had "received" you. I just wanted to know why you believe all your sins were forgiven as opposed to being "paid for."


In the truth of the Teaching of Jesus,
Rhema

* If that is the question, then I can answer it, but not necessarily provide a scripture as you requested (from the words of the Lord Jesus Christ). You have provided one that you believe is an adequate Scripture, from the Lord's prayer: I did not think of that; but I thank you for bringing it to my attention.

* The apology is for me to give to you, @Rhema, may God's will be perfectly done in both of us, for His Name and glory's sake.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[Garee]

But my entire last post was a relevant verse, and instead of continuing with the Socratic Method, I posted my witness. I don't know how I could make this more clear:
... rather than the teachings of Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice).

How does Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice) .differ ? Human blood sacrifice cannibalisms?

 

[complete]

@Rhema,

I just wanted to know why you believe all your sins were forgiven as opposed to being "paid for."​

'In Whom we have redemption (G629) through His blood,
the forgiveness (G859) of sins, according to the riches of His grace;'
(Eph.1:7 )

'In Whom we have redemption (629) (through His blood,
even the forgiveness (G859) of sins:'
(Col.1:14)

Hello @Rhema,

In Christ (1 Cor. 1:30) the believer has 'pardon' (i.e., deliverance, forgiveness, liberty, remission.), the Lord Jesus Christ having paid the ransom price in full, thereby bringing deliverance and redemption.

Praise God!

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[Rxlx]

Scythians are the Lost Tribe of Israelites that travelled west and settled England as Christians.

 

[complete]

John 3:19 And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.

Hell is known as outer darkness.

2Th_2:10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.

God loves man so much he lets him choose his future.

'But the children of the kingdom
shall be cast out into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.8:12)

'Then said the king to the servants,
Bind him hand and foot, and take him away,
and cast him into outer darkness;
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.22:13)

'And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.25:30)

Hello @Curtis,

The words, 'outer darkness', in each of the verses above refer to the outside of 'The Kingdom of Heaven', it does not refer to Hell. The Kingdom of Heaven descends to the earth. 'Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.' (Mat 6:10)

'Not every one that saith unto Me, Lord, Lord,
shall enter into the kingdom of heaven;
but he that doeth the will of My Father which is in heaven.'
(Mat 7:21)

' ... ... What shall we do,
that we might work the works of God?
'Jesus answered and said unto them,
This is the work of God,
that ye believe on Him Whom He hath sent.'
(Joh 6:28b-29)

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[Curtis]

'But the children of the kingdom
shall be cast out into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.8:12)

'Then said the king to the servants,
Bind him hand and foot, and take him away,
and cast him into outer darkness;
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.22:13)

'And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.25:30)

Hello @Curtis,

The words, 'outer darkness', in each of the verses above refer to the outside of 'The Kingdom of Heaven', it does not refer to Hell. The Kingdom of Heaven descends to the earth. 'Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.' (Mat 6:10)

'Not every one that saith unto Me, Lord, Lord,
shall enter into the kingdom of heaven;
but he that doeth the will of My Father which is in heaven.'
(Mat 7:21)

' ... ... What shall we do,
that we might work the works of God?
'Jesus answered and said unto them,
This is the work of God,
that ye believe on Him Whom He hath sent.'
(Joh 6:28b-29)

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

Jesus uses the term “outer darkness” in the parable to describe a condition of great sorrow, loss and woe. It stands in vivid contrast to the brightly lit and joyous celebration attended by those who accepted the king’s invitation. Interpreting the wedding feast as heaven, the “outer darkness” must be the place of eternal punishment. Most Bible scholars agree that the phrase “outer darkness” refers to hell or, more properly, the lake of fire (Matthew 8:12; 13:42; 13:50; and 25:30,41).

From "Got Questions"

 

[complete]

Jesus uses the term “outer darkness” in the parable to describe a condition of great sorrow, loss and woe. It stands in vivid contrast to the brightly lit and joyous celebration attended by those who accepted the king’s invitation. Interpreting the wedding feast as heaven, the “outer darkness” must be the place of eternal punishment. Most Bible scholars agree that the phrase “outer darkness” refers to hell or, more properly, the lake of fire (Matthew 8:12; 13:42; 13:50; and 25:30,41).

From "Got Questions"

Hello @Curtis,

It would be wise to bring the content of any reply given on 'Got Questions' or any other website of this nature to the word of God, to ensure that what is being said is true according to what is written within it's pages. For there is bias in all the works of man, no matter how well meaning.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[complete]

Jesus uses the term “outer darkness” in the parable to describe a condition of great sorrow, loss and woe. It stands in vivid contrast to the brightly lit and joyous celebration attended by those who accepted the king’s invitation. Interpreting the wedding feast as heaven, the “outer darkness” must be the place of eternal punishment. Most Bible scholars agree that the phrase “outer darkness” refers to hell or, more properly, the lake of fire (Matthew 8:12; 13:42; 13:50; and 25:30,41).

From "Got Questions"

Hello @Curtis,

The words, 'outer darkness', refers to the end of the age: the time when Abraham, Isaac and Jacob will be sat down in the Kingdom of God, the one resurrection obviously passed, otherwise this would not be possible.

' And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west,
and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
But the children of the kingdom shall be cast out into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
And Jesus said unto the centurion,
Go thy way; and as thou hast believed, so be it done unto thee.
And his servant was healed in the selfsame hour.'
(Mat 8:11-13)

* The following comes in the parable of the wedding feast:-

'And when the king came in to see the guests,
he saw there a man which had not on a wedding garment:
And he saith unto him,
Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?
And he was speechless.
Then said the king to the servants,
Bind him hand and foot, and take him away,
and cast him into outer darkness;
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
For many are called, but few are chosen.'
(Mat 22:11-14)

* The last reference to, 'outer darkness', is from the parable of the talents:-

For unto every one that hath shall be given,
and he shall have abundance:
but from him that hath not
shall be taken away even that which he hath.
And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Mat 25:29-30)

* 'Weeping and gnashing of teeth' go side by side with the words, 'outer darkness' . We have looked at three of the occurrences, leaving two more:-
* This comes in the story of the narrow door:-
'There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth,
when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob,
and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God,
and you yourselves thrust out.'
And they shall come from the east, and from the west,
and from the north, and from the south,
and shall sit down in the kingdom of God.'
(Luk 13:28-29)

* This is concerning the evil servant who treats his servants badly:-

' The lord of that servant shall come
in a day when he looketh not for him,
and in an hour that he is not aware of,
'And shall cut him asunder,
and appoint him his portion with the hypocrites:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth. '
(Mat 24:50-51)

* The words, 'outer darkness', shadiness and obscurity is the meaning of the Greek word, 'Skotos' (darkness) literally or figuratively.
* This is a definite occasion, and not a state, which will occur at the end of the age,
* This is not the place of eternal punishment. For there is no fire referred to here.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
.

 

[Garee]

Scythians are the Lost Tribe of Israelites that travelled west and settled England as Christians.

When did the tribes lose an ongoing descent or birth record" ?

Was Jesus the son of man who become the first born again son of God the last recorded?

How can we trace back all of the tribes. . .if the way is lost

Today 57 varieties all the nation makes up the one nation called Christian

 

[Rxlx]

When did the tribes lose an ongoing descent or birth record" ?

Was Jesus the son of man who become the first born again son of God the last recorded?

How can we trace back all of the tribes. . .if the way is lost

Today 57 varieties all the nation makes up the one nation called Christian

Meanwhile outside your asylum there are plenty of historical records including one called THE BIBLE. I suggest you buy one and stop making a fool of yourself.

 

[Christ4Ever]

Who would be preaching the gospel in the 7-years if the entire church had already been raptured?

[Rom 10:17 KJV] 17 So then faith [cometh] by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

If the condition is that one must be of the Lord to preach, then there are a plenty that are mistaken on their salvation, because many who do preach the gospel, have issues and some quite ungodly ones at that. I'm sure you could even point a few out yourself. Too many out there see it as a job, or a way to get rich off of other people. It doesn't mean that God through his word can't save those who come to the faith by these men/women but pity the preacher who doesn't believe and yet presents the gospel daily to others.

The question I do have, is that some believe the Holy Spirit is removed which is how the Adversary gets full reign to do what he wants. So, then if one comes to faith and believes; how are they sealed by the Holy Spirit as we are now? Or is the road just that much harder for them...

[Eph 1:13-14 KJV] 13 In whom ye also [trusted], after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14 Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.

This very well may have been brought up and answered, in the 4/5 pages of comments I still haven't gone through.
Just catching up on some light reading and came across your comment.

With the Love of Christ Jesus.
YBIC
Nick
\o/
<><

 

[Garee]

Meanwhile outside your asylum there are plenty of historical records including one called THE BIBLE. I suggest you buy one and stop making a fool of yourself.

Thanks for the reply. I would suggest you prove I am a fool.

You must of meant exclusively one the Bible

Eternal God (Holy Spirit) is not a Jewish man. The goal of Satan to deceive the world the Son of man is the King of kings and not his Father not seen the true King of earthly kings

The Bible as to the etymology of the son of man, Jesus who become born again son of God ended with his birth.

Luke3:23-24 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,
;Which was the son of Matthat, which was the son of Levi, which was the son of Melchi, which was the son of Janna, which was the son of Joseph,

The spiritual born again seed Christ began with Abel the apostle and first martyr

If not, who was used after Jesus to represent the second born seed which began with Abel and replaced by Enos?

What historical record?

It was at that time that born again mankind could call on our Holy Father not seen.

Back to Genesis the born-again doctrine

Genisis 4:25=26;And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed (Christ )instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.And to Seth, to him also there was born a son; and he called his name Enos: then (not before) began men to call upon the name of the Lord.

Jesus in John 3 reminds us we must be born again from above.

 

[Rhema]

How does Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice) .differ ?

Humans are not animals. It is well known within Judaism (for millennia) that God prohibits human sacrifices, and that this was the lesson taught to Abraham over the sacrifice of Issac.

Thanks for the reply. I would suggest you prove I am a fool.

You must of meant exclusively one the Bible

It ought to have been written..., "You must have meant ..." Is this sufficient proof?

Maybe not, but some of the word salads you have posted are like listening to Mozart played on a circus calliope (not palatable).

The goal of Satan to deceive the world the Son of man is the King of kings and not his Father not seen the true King of earthly kings

The goal of Satan is to achieve eternal life for himself. Period.

Jesus in John 3 reminds us we must be born again from above.

Just to note that the actual Greek text reads... "born from the beginning."

You have a nice Easter (started by the first Pope - Peter Rabbit).
Rhema

 

[Rhema]

So, then if one comes to faith and believes; how are they sealed by the Holy Spirit as we are now?

Most are not sealed. They just think they are - as if some invisible, intangible magic wand is merely waved over them regardless of the absence of evidence.

Rhema

 

[Christ4Ever]

Most are not sealed. They just think they are - as if some invisible, intangible magic wand is merely waved over them regardless of the absence of evidence.

Rhema

Thank-you Dylan for your insightful answer to my question.

 

[Rhema]

God doesn't have human or emotional bias that would bend the rules.

Sorry for the late reply, but my eye just noticed this.

What about Mercy?
Grace?
Forgiveness?

Where do these "rules" come from? And who would deny the Sovereignty of the Father to merely forgive sin through repentance as the Messiah taught?

And this "bend the rules...." sounds a lot like Calvinism, fabricated by a lawyer who saw everything as rules.

Rhema

The Ticketmaster (God) has no bias.

You have to buy your way into heaven?