Which part of
ORDAINED TO BELIEVE, or
APPOINTED TO DISOBEDIENCE makes you believe in free will? Not to mention that
God works all things according to his
own will, which makes my will irrelevant.
Ephesians 1:11
Those ordained to believe are simply the first fruits in the first death. There will be a second crop in the second death, but it will be in Gods timing as he chooses the
order for EVERY MAN.
Those appointed to disobedience are simply those like the Roman soldiers who carried out the crucifixion of Jesus. He did say forgive them for
they know
not what they do. The disobedient and unbelievers are necessary for the maturing process of the ORDAINED. It is referred to as the MYSTERY OF INIQUITY in the Bible.
I realize this thread is not about free will but just responding to your post.
One thing to keep in mind is that when most of our English Bibles were originally translated, it was by the Reformers. Take for instance,
Acts 13:48 that you posted. This is how the Reformers translated it.
And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed. (Acts 13:48 KJV)
Here's how it is in the Greek text.
Ἀκούοντα δὲ τὰ ἔθνη ἔχαιρεν,1 καὶ ἐδόξαζον τὸν λόγον τοῦ κυρίου, καὶ ἐπίστευσαν ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον. (Acts 13:48 BYZ)
Here's how Young's literal translations translates it.
Acts 13:48 And the nations hearing were glad, and were glorifying the word of the Lord, and did believe -- as many as were appointed to life age-during; (Acts 13:48 YLT)
The first thing to notice is where the word believe falls in the verse. Notice the KJV has believed at the end of the verse. However, in the Greek text the word believe is before appointed. Also, Young's has added the hyphen after believe. Without the hyphen it would look like this.
And the nations hearing were glad, and were glorifying the word of the Lord, and did believe as many as were appointed to life age-during;
There are two ways you could understand this. You could say, and did believe, as many as were appointed to life age-during. Or, you could say, and did believe as many as, were appointed to life age-during. In other words you could read it as, as many as were ordained to eternal life believed or you could read it as, as many as believed where ordained to eternal life.
Which one is right? We know from the context which it is. Firstly, the word, "τεταγμένοι", that is translated appointed, also means to arrange in order. However, the word is in the Greek middle/passive voice. The middle voice means that the subject, in this case "as many as believed", both performs and receives the action of the verb. In other words, he does it to himself. We know that the verb is in the middle voice because 2 verses prior Paul says of the Jews.
45 But when the Jews saw the multitudes, they were filled with envy, and spake against those things which were spoken by Paul, contradicting and blaspheming.
46 Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.
47 For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.
48 And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed. (Acts 13:45-48 KJV)
In this passage Paul says that the Jews rejected the word of God and judged themselves unworthy of age-during life. So, the reason those Jews don't receive age-during life is due to their own decisions. Their salvation or lack of is based on their decision. Since the Jews did it to themselves regarding salvation so too did the Gentiles. So, unless one wants to argue that Paul is saying the Jews get to choose salvation and the Gentiles don't, one has to understand verse 48 as I've stated above. If one chooses to accept the Reformed understanding they have to accept two different methods of salvation, one of choice and one of necessity.
But, this isn't the only place the Reformers changed the word order of the text. The did the same in 1 Peter to fit their theology.
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
2
Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied. (
1 Pet. 1:1-2 KJV)
Verse 2 doesn't say elect according to the foreknowledge of God. The word translated elect is "eklectos" it's actually in verse one.
Πέτρος, ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ χριστοῦ, ἐκλεκτοῖς παρεπιδήμοις διασπορᾶς Πόντου, Γαλατίας, Καππαδοκίας, Ἀσίας, καὶ Βιθυνίας,
2 κατὰ πρόγνωσιν θεοῦ πατρός, ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος, εἰς ὑπακοὴν καὶ ῥαντισμὸν αἵματος Ἰησοῦ χριστοῦ· χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη. (1 Pet. 1:1-2 BYZ)
Here's how Young's Literal Translation has it.
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the
choice sojourners of the dispersion of Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
2 according to a foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied! (
1 Pet. 1:1-2 YLT)
Peter says, "to the choice sojourners of he dispersion". The word "choice" is the word elect. Peter is addressing the elect sojourners of the Diaspora. The Diaspora was a term for the Jews who were scattered among the nations. He uses elect in conjunction with the Jews. He's not saying people are elect according to God's forknowledge.
I'd be happy to address the other passages in your post, however, I don't really want to derail this thread. If you start another thread I'd be happy to address them.
