Admon Mikha'el
Active
- Joined
- Dec 7, 2020
- Messages
- 2,692
I am NOT a curmudgeon.....I'm irascible, cantankerous, prickly, fractious, grumpy, but I am not acurmudgeonCurmudgeon.
.
By registering with us, you'll be able to discuss, share and private message with other members of our community.
SignUp Now!I am NOT a curmudgeon.....I'm irascible, cantankerous, prickly, fractious, grumpy, but I am not acurmudgeonCurmudgeon.
LOL. Grump. Sorry, I mean curmudgeon.I am NOT a curmudgeon.....I'm irascible, cantankerous, prickly, fractious, grumpy, but I am not acurmudgeon
.
LOL. Grump. Sorry, I mean curmudgeon.
Yup...This is one way that tongues manifests.I've heard it said that the miracle of tongues isn't in the speaking but rather in the
hearing. Sort of like an episode in NetFlix's Sense8 series. A cop is able to speak in
Korean and not even know it because he hears himself speaking in English while a
Korean friend hears him speaking his native language. For example:
• Acts 2:4-8 . . And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak
with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. And there were dwelling at
Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
. . . Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were
confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. And
they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all
these which speak Galilaeans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue,
wherein we were born?
_ _
Romans 8:26I must be on his ignore list because I've already posted proof tongues is a prayer language. 1 Corinthians 14.
And too there is 1Corinthians 13.
Hello @Butch5,Yes, Tongues was a sign to unbelieving Israel. Contrary to what some believe it is not a prayer language.
Hello @Butch5,
I am not wishing to cast doubt on what you say, but I would appreciate Scriptural confirmation that the gift of tongues was a sign to unbelieving Israel, So that I can confirm what you say.
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Hi Chris,Hello @Butch5,
I am not wishing to cast doubt on what you say, but I would appreciate Scriptural confirmation that the gift of tongues was a sign to unbelieving Israel, So that I can confirm what you say.
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Hello @Admon Mikha'el,That's my question
Thank you, @Butch5, I am going off-line now, but thank you for your response, I shall look at these references and come back to you.Hi Chris,
Sure. IN 1 Cor 14 Paul says this,
1 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. (1 Cor. 14:21-22 KJV)
Here Paul says that it is written that God would speak unto this people with men of other tongues. What is it written and who is "this people"? We find it written in Isaiah 28.
11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
13 But the word of the LORD was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.
14 Wherefore hear the word of the LORD, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.
(Isa. 28:11-14 KJV)
Isaiah 28 and 29 are about the judgment that came in 70 AD. Isaiah also said,
Behold, I and the children whom the LORD hath given me are for signs and for wonders in Israel from the LORD of hosts, which dwelleth in mount Zion. (Isa. 8:18 KJV)
HI Chris,'And, being assembled together with them,
commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem,
but wait for the promise of the Father,
which, saith He, ye have heard of Me.'
(Act 1:4 - John 14:16, 26; 15:26; 16:7)
Hello @Butch5,
Seeking confirmation Acts 1:4 took me to Luke 24:49, regarding '... the promise of the Father ...', which was the gift of the Holy Spirit, according to Joel 2:28,29 (Acts 2:17-18), Isaiah 44:3 & Ezekiel 36:26-27. This promise was made to the People of Israel. At Pentecost there were Jews gathered from the diaspora, as well as those within the Land, who heard the message of God given in languages which they could understand. Yes, it was given to the believing community within Israel at Pentecost. It was also given to the gentiles when Cornelius and his household were saved, and entry into the Kingdom made possible for them in Acts 10:44-46; Acts 15:7-11.
Just thoughts.
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Complete...Please allow me to challenge you here....What does "In Christ" mean?Hello @Admon Mikha'el,
The Believer who has believed God concerning His Son the Lord Jesus Christ, and have been saved by His grace, are 'in Christ' and are therefore walking in newness of spirit before the Father. There is nothing to hinder their prayers, for in Christ they are 'in spirit'.
So in answer to your question, 'Can One Pray in the Spirit Without Speaking in Tongues?' The answer is yes, of course, for we worship God truly in spirit.
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Ref: reply #72Complete...Please allow me to challenge you here....What does "In Christ" mean?
Hello @Butch5,Hi Chris,
Sure. IN 1 Cor 14 Paul says this,
1 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. (1 Cor. 14:21-22 KJV)
Here Paul says that it is written that God would speak unto this people with men of other tongues. What is it written and who is "this people"? We find it written in Isaiah 28.
11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
13 But the word of the LORD was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.
14 Wherefore hear the word of the LORD, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.
(Isa. 28:11-14 KJV)
Isaiah 28 and 29 are about the judgment that came in 70 AD. Isaiah also said,
Behold, I and the children whom the LORD hath given me are for signs and for wonders in Israel from the LORD of hosts, which dwelleth in mount Zion. (Isa. 8:18 KJV)
Hello @Butch5,
Thank you for these verses, they are very clear aren't the? There can be no doubt as to the fact that the tongues that were manifested at Pentecost were for a sign to the unbelieving in Israel.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign,
not to them that believe,
but to them that believe not:
but prophesying
serveth not for them that believe not,
but for them which believe.
(1 Cor. 14:22 KJV)
What an interesting verse this is , isn't it? Both the first and second part of it. Yes?
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris