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Father, Son, Holy Spirit! Is the Holy Spirit Masculine or Feminine?

All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

Everyone knows The scrolls are the ORIGINAL my friend!
What is the Vulgate and Septuigan?
The KJV is a version of the bible authorized by King James himself....Not a scroll....Everybody knows that my friend

(KJV), also known as the King James Bible (KJB) or simply the Authorized Version (AV), is an English translation of the Christian Bible for the Church of England, begun in 1604 and completed as well as published in 1611 under the sponsorship of King James I of England. Everybody knows that, my friend....

BTW....self righteousness is what you're facing.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

I meant Original Text, I thought you would get that but I was wrong.

Where did KJ translate from my friend?
You do know that King James was an Israelite?
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

I meant Original Text, I thought you would get that but I was wrong.

Where did KJ translate from my friend?
You do know that King James was an Israelite?
Maybe you should read my last post? Listen, not to reply, but to understand.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

So I take you do know that King James sat on 3 thrones right?
 
FATHER, SON, HOLY SPIRIT!
IS THE HOLY SPIRIT
MASCULINE OR FEMININE?
AND GOES BY WHAT NAME?

Man (a male creature) was made according to the image and likeness of the triune God. God the Father is obviously a male figure, the one bearing the accountable seed. The SON speaks highly of a male counterpart, namely Jesus. The Holy Spirit is nowhere identified as a female egg waiting for the male seed. That was provided by Mary, bearing the seed of the woman promised in Genesis. The Spirit is obviously of the "gender" of God, a male. Female came out of part of Adam, a created being, based on X/Y, chromosomes, IOW genetics. Eve was necessary for propagation of humankind. God had already created male and female versions of animals, and continued that great plan for mankind.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

There are those who didn't know that, but will now do research to validate that information.

Blessings
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

My friend, the 1611 KJV is the ORIGINAL BIBLE!
That Contains All 80 Books!

More Biblical Books means more information does it not?

Where does self righteousness come in?
Thank You for replying.
Please in the Future either use the Reply and Quote button or tag the one you are replying to. Its much easier this way.

You state you have more understanding then the rest and yet you don't understand a self righteous Spirit, how is this?

Exalting Self, putting self above others, knows more and their ways are best.

Second
KJV you speak of is not the original bible.

The KJV comes from the Greek mostly and the Greek is another translation from Hebrew and the Greek in many times did not even have a word to correctly translate from Hebrew.

You will do well to learn this.
Blessings
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

I meant Original Text, I thought you would get that but I was wrong.

Where did KJ translate from my friend?
You do know that King James was an Israelite?

Salami, salami, baloney. The only connection possible is the resolutely disproved British Israel Replacement theology idea.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

The KJV 1611 Does not come from
the Grecians, it is HEBREW as the scrolls confirm so whatever nation was in authoritie at that time had the translation done in their language.
My question is why was the KING JAMES 1611 translation done if the Grecians already had a translation?
What was the reason ?
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

The KJV 1611 Does not come from
the Grecians, it is HEBREW as the scrolls confirm so whatever nation was in authoritie at that time had the translation done in their language.
My question is why was the KING JAMES 1611 translation done if the Grecians already had a translation?
What was the reason ?
Face it, KJ had the bible written as an easier to understand book for themselves.

So enjoy your bible and your pridfulness. You will fall flat eventually unless you do some good ole fashion repentance.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

Yes, you are right!
KJ was an Israelite and I am Hebrew an Israelite, it was translated from Hebrew into another language to fulfill prophecy because we Israelites today are speaking another tounge and not Hebrew our Native tongue.
Isaiah 28:11 [11]For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speake to this people.
This understanding we Israelites are getting is from AHAYAH GOD.
Pride has no place in this Blessing.
We are receiving it not giving it so what can we boast about?

Blessings
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

The KJV 1611 Does not come from
the Grecians, it is HEBREW as the scrolls confirm so whatever nation was in authoritie at that time had the translation done in their language.
My question is why was the KING JAMES 1611 translation done if the Grecians already had a translation?
What was the reason ?

Use a browser to look up the history of the KJV. In short, under Queen Mary's brief reign there was a short-lived attempt to put England under the RCC, followed by Queen Elizabeth guiding them into the strengthened protestant Church of England, in 1604 shortly after James was coronated, he was approached by clergymen of the Church of England. The great need was a correction of corrupt Bible versions, even King Henry the 8th's The Great Bible, and the Bishop's Bible, and the Geneva Bible. James authorized 54 revisers, ending up with 47 scholars to bring several source manuscripts into one accurate volume, the Authorized Version. Not all of those men were experts in Hebrew, but the Hebrew Bible, not the Greek Septuagint, was consulted and written in the then common English language, as were New Testament writings. In 1610 the first AV was created, and publishing began in 1611.

Englishmen in those days had no use for Hebrew, Latin nor Greek, as it is today except for scholarly uses, often simply for verification of a modern version.

There's a huge database about James and the KJV, and the Church of England role, though I've never noticed anything along the line you are writing. I'd reconsider that you've been corrupted by false teaching, which is said that you review your beliefs that are apparently contrary to the vast worldwide scholarly understandings.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

Yes, you are right!
KJ was an Israelite and I am Hebrew an Israelite, it was translated from Hebrew into another language to fulfill prophecy because we Israelites today are speaking another tounge and not Hebrew our Native tongue.
Isaiah 28:11 [11]For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speake to this people.
This understanding we Israelites are getting is from AHAYAH GOD.
Pride has no place in this Blessing.
We are receiving it not giving it so what can we boast about?

Blessings

Christians believe that quote and that of Joel was fulfilled at Pentecost by the 120 in the upper room. See Acts.
 
All praises to FATHER AHAYAH YASHAYAH WA RAACH!

Dovegiven
Those whom you deem scholars are just wearing the title. I've seen many interviews of as you say "Jewish Scholars" not one had understanding of scriptures nor directing someone seeking answers but always diverted to outside sources.
Also that of Joel was Not fulfilled at Pentecost.
 
I am personally just grateful to God for preserving his word in the Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. We can always go back and look to these ancient texts to see exactly what they are saying.

Most of the translations are very good translations, however, there are a few, selected, chosen KEY subject doctrines, teachings and A SET OF SPECIFIC IDEAS that they focus upon and will not translate correctly. The Trinitarians had a set of pre - existing doctrinal principals that they created before the Bible was translated into another language. And this was nearly 2000 years after Yahoshua.

Remember the KJV bible was a federal authorization / permit for people to read a book that had been banned and outlawed for nearly 2000 years - The KJV in 1611…. was copied nearly word for word - over from the Popes DRB translation in 1582.

The European Trinitarians continued afterwards - to persecute and terrorize others who refused to believe as they believed. In 1582 - nearly 2000 years after Christ,- the very first translation of a Bible translation was permitted that all of the governments and kingdoms of Europe would FEDERALLY LICENSE, permit / allow - you to read without the violent threat of being declared heretic, anathema, persecuted, violently attacked, killed, burned alive, tortured or fined - or all your property confiscated - or they just force you to be shipped out across the ocean to die of starvation or disease or lost at sea.

Many Quakers and Puritans died from starvation and disease as the Trinitarian Europeans made a life for them impossible in Europe and banished thousands of them from Europe. One of my parents Geneology came from someone who came over on the Mayflower.

My family came over to America on the Mayflower from England in 1620, there were 102 passengers.

In 1611 the Trinitarian Protestants in England copied the English Translated Roman Catholic Bible called the Douay Rheims Bible and this is what they called the KJV. Later in the 1620s the leaders of the English state and church began to insist that the Puritans conform to religious practices and removing their ministers from office and threatened them with " extirpation / exermination or removal from the earth" if they did not fall in line with the Church of England.
 
Hello @only son
I'm curious how you breakdown for understanding John 5:18 and the significance of "equal". For surely the Jews of the day concerned what Jesus was saying about himself in relation to God, was sufficient to warrant death.

I only ask this because I came across it in my daily reading and see your questioning of Biblical Accuracy/Interpretation.

Thank-you in advance for your consideration.
With the Love of Christ Jesus.
YBIC
Nick
<><
 

Thank you for responding to me, I will do my best to be truthful and explain what we see in the manuscripts.

If we simply look at
John 5:17 -

in The Textus Receptus, The Apostolic Bible Polyglot, The Wescott Hort and The Byzantine Text,

we find that these manuscripts do NEARLY reflect something resembling the message of the Douay Rheims and The KJV. But we although we nearly see the same message - there is a word or words that are not the same message - it is not the same as the original manuscripts.

And the KJV is almost an exact duplicate copy of the Catholic English DR Bible word for word completely..
However, in John 5:17 - all of these Greek manuscripts are worded differently than the English Catholic and Protestant Copy Cat KJV translation.

Here is the way the wording is expressed in all of the Greek Manuscripts.

John 5:17 But Jesus answered them, My Father works until now, and I work.

Verse :18 BY THIS THEN MORE SOUGHT HIM, THE JEWS TO KILL, THAT NOT ONLY BREAKING THE SABBATH BUT ALSO THE FATHER IS HIS OWN, SAYING THE GOD EQUALED HIMSELF, MAKING HIM GOD.

This is how the original manuscripts read exactly. This is how the bible was written.


But the Trinitarian Translation says - Joh 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the Sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal WITH God.

However - the word “ WITH “ _ with God _ was never in the manuscripts, it was added or inserted into the translation.

Here is the Greek Manuscripts layout of - John 5:18 - exactly word for word……

δ ι α By - τ ο υ τ ο THIS - ο υ ν THEN - μ α λ λ ο ν MORE - ε ζ η τ ο υ ν SOUGHT - α υ τ ο ν HIM - ο ι THE - ι ο υ δ α ι ο ι JEWS - α π ο κ τ ε ι ν α ι TO KILL - ο τ ι THAT - ο υ NOT - μ ο ν ο ν ONLY - ε λ υ ε ν BREAKING - τ ο THE - σ α β β α τ ο ν SABBATH - α λ λ α BUT - κ α ι ALSO π α τ ε ρ α THE FATHER - ι δ ι ο ν - HIS OWN - ε λ ε γ ε ν SAYING - τ ο ν THE - θ ε ο ν GOD - ι σ ο ν EQUALED - ε α υ τ ο ν - HIMSELF - π ο ι ω ν MAKING - τ ω HIM - θ ε ω GOD.

All of the manuscripts that exist are perfectly identical word for word.

(Greek NT - Apostolic Bible Polyglot ) δια τουτο ουν μαλλον εζητουν αυτον οι Ιουδαιοι αποκτειναι οτι ου μονον ελυε το σαββατον αλλα και πατερα ιδιον ελεγεν τον θεον ισον εαυτον ποιων τω θεω
(Greek NT - New Testament manuscripts ) διὰ τοῦτο οὖν μᾶλλον ἐζήτουν αὐτὸν οἱ ᾿Ιουδαῖοι ἀποκτεῖναι, ὅτι οὐ μόνον ἔλυε τὸ σάββατον, ἀλλὰ καὶ πατέρα ἴδιον ἔλεγε τὸν Θεόν, ἴσον ἑαυτὸν ποιῶν τῷ Θεῷ.
(Greek NT - Byzantine Text) δια τουτο ουν μαλλον εζητουν οι ιουδαιοι αποκτειναι οτι ου μονον ελυεν το σαββατον αλλα και πατερα ιδιον ελεγεν τον θεον ισον εαυτον ποιων τω θεω
(Greek NT - Textus Receptus) δια τουτο ουν μαλλον εζητουν αυτον οι ιουδαιοι αποκτειναι οτι ου μονον ελυεν το σαββατον αλλα και πατερα ιδιον ελεγεν τον θεον ισον εαυτον ποιων τω θεω
(Greek NT - Wescott Hort ) δια τουτο ουν μαλλον εζητουν αυτον οι ιουδαιοι αποκτειναι οτι ου μονον ελυεν το σαββατον αλλα και πατερα ιδιον ελεγεν τον θεον ισον εαυτον ποιων τω θεω.

The Greek word “ with “ was not in the original message to say Yahoshua had made himself equal with God and it is written originally as “ BUT ALSO THE FATHER IS HIS OWN, SAYING GOD EQUALED HIMSELF, MAKING HIM GOD “

G2398 - ἴδιος - idios / id'-ee-os - Meaning = To self, that is, one's own; by implication private or separate: - As - , when they were alone, apart, aside, - thine, your) own (business), private (-ly), proper, severally, their (own).

Yahoshua was not just saying that The father was simply his father but the word “
idios “ is used - Meaning == OWNERSHIP / private, separate belonging. Not just being a son of the father but the Father was literally “ Himself as his own production, his own belonging, ownership - the Father was his personality - belonging to him…..

We see that the Greek word - G2398 - ἴδιος - idios / id'-ee-os - does not mean simply the meaning that God was “ HIS FATHER “ but THE FATHER WAS HIS OWN, as in ownership - belonging alone to him and HIM ALONE. - in this context …… This is why they wanted to kill him.

I will give a perfect understandable example of this Greek word and how it is mistranslated in the Trinitarian translation also in 1Co 7: 1 - 2

Looking at the two Greek words G2398 - ἴδιος - idios / id'-ee-os pertaining to the wife having her “ own / private / singular ONLY idios husband.

And pertaining to the Greek word in the verse - G1438 - ἑαυτοῦ / heautou pertaining to the husband having himself / his heautou wife or wives.
When we read the Trinitarian Translation we see..

1Co 7:1 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. :2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

But the manuscripts are different

1Co 7:2 δια By δε also τας this πορνειας fornication εκαστος each man την εαυτου himself γυναικα wife / wives εχετω have και and εκαστη each τον her ιδιον OWN / private / singular ανδρα husband εχετω have

1Co 7:2 By also this is fornication, each man “ HIMSELF heautou “ wife / wives have and each her “ own idios “ husband have.

I use this verse because here the Trinitarians are attempting to use the word heautou to pertain to the verse you mentioned in
John 5:17 . Meaning they are attempting to say that Yahohoshua simply stated that God was his father but this is not what the manuscripts say. The manuscripts say that he said ” THE FATHER IS HIS OWN “ and this is a big difference with the additional message he was saying. He was making himself as God saying the father IS MY VERY OWN - not - God is my Father or the father of myself or himself.

The Trinitarians claimed that the text in 1Co 7:2 - was saying that a man is to have his OWN wife and the wife is to have her OWN husband, as if the concept of forbidding a man having additional wives was somehow embedded into the original message.

The Verse is not about specifically mentioning plural marriage but the Trinitarians attempt to push the idea by manipulating and rearranging and changing the sentence structure and we find this was done by claiming the verse stated that a man is to have his “ OWN WIFE “ and a woman is to have her “ OWN “ husband. But this is not what the manuscripts are saying.

The message is simply “ each man “ himself - εαυτου “ wife / wives have and each her “ OWN - idios “ husband have.

Also, we see that this attempt to push an anti-polygamy message is throughout the translation.

In the Greek Language there are two entirely separate words that separate - between the definition of The Greek word “ MIA “ meaning = “ ONE IN UNITY or AGREEMENT or UNITED “

and also, the definition of The Greek word “ HEIS “ meaning = a Primary Numeral One. ( 1. ) – in singularity. ( one and no more - ONLY ONE ( 1. )... These are two completely entirely separate Greek words - with two totally different meanings and they are used in two different meanings.

A primary numeral 1. Is the word = G1520 - εἷς - “ Heis “ - hice / hice. Meaning = A primary numeral; one: one only.

The word meaning to agree or UNITY or AGREEMENT or UNITED , is the word - G3391 - “ MIA “ - μία – mia - mee'-ah. meaning = To agree, = also meaning - A (certain person, place or thing), = also meaning = first and also unity or AGREEMENT or UNITED.

We find that these two separate Greek words “ G1520 - εἷς - “ Heis-. “ and G3391 - “ MIA “ - μία – mia - are used together in many of the same exact verses, and we see the difference in their meanings and how these two different words are used.

The word - μία - “ MIA “ is a word in Greek - to express all of the ways, all the reasons and ways to say “ one “ when You do not intentionally mean to intend to express ( A PRIMARY NUMERAL ONE ) = for example when you say “ one in unity/ agreement “

or to say as “ when You point to an abject and say - “ I WANT THAT ONE “ ...

the word - G3391 μία - “ MIA “ also means - “ FIRST “ and “ UNITY / agreement “ or “ A Certain person, place or thing “ - such as when You say “ I SAW “ A “ FIG TREE “ - The word - μία - “ MIA “ would mean the word “ A. “ ...

For example the husband and wife are “ ONE “ - UNITED or IN AGREEMENT / agreed / united flesh - the Greek N.T. always uses the Greek word - μία - “ MIA “ - unity - for this concept.

NEVER in the N.T. / Greek - are a husband and wife - G1520 - εἷς “ Heis “ - hice / hice. Meaning = A primary numeral; one: one only. They are always -= μία - “ MIA “. - unity / united flesh. Always and only..

Anytime You say the word “ ONE “ in a sentence and are not intending to say the PRIMARY NUMERAL ONE. = meaning { 1. ) – only - in the Greek You would say - μία - “ MIA. We can look and see the definition of these two different Greek words and how they are used in their meaning – when they are used together in the same exact verse.

Let’s look at the real meaning of these words and how they are used together in the same verses.

Luk 17:34 Two men in ( A - μία / MIA } bed; the { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } shall be taken, and the other left.
Joh 10:16 And ... there shall be ( A - μία / MIA } fold and { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } shepherd.
1Co 6:16 Him joined to an harlot is { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } body for two, saith he, shall be ( united - μία / MIA } flesh.
Eph 4: 4 - 5 There is { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } Lord, ( A - μία / MIA } faith and { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } baptism.
Php 1:27 Stand fast in { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } spirit, with ( UNITED / agreed - μία / MIA } minds ...........
Rev 6:1 The Lamb opened ( FIRST - μία / MIA } seal and { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } of the beasts said Come and see.
2Pe 3:8 Be not ignorant of this { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } thing ( A - μία / MIA } day is as a thousand years... and a thousand years as ( A - μία / MIA } day.
Mat 5:18 Till heaven and earth pass, not { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } jot or ( A - μία / MIA } tittle shall pass from the law
Act 4:32 The multitude .. were of ( UNITED - μία / MIA } heart and of { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } soul.
And Luk 14:18 - With { MIA - μία - unity } = ( one mind ) they made excuses.

Also the word { G3391 - “ MIA “ - μία – mia } is used to mean “ FIRST in the following verses - - Mar_16:2, Luk_24:1, Joh_20:1, Joh_20:19, Act_12:10 , Act_20:7, 1Co_16:2, Tit_3:10, Luk_16:5

Also the word - { G3391 - “ MIA “ -
μίαmia } is used in the Tit 1:6 and 1Ti 3:12 verses commanding deacons and elders to be the husbands of ( A ) wife. Never once does the Bible command any man to be married to only ( 1. ) single woman -

NEVER is the word - { 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis } - never, ever used to say that a man is to have only one single wife. The authors always use the Greek word - MIA - μία - when saying that a man, deacon or bishop should have a wife. Not even once.

However the Original Greek does ( ALWAYS ) every single last time- the Greek uses the word meaning “ a primary numeral one = { 1. } when saying that a woman is to have 1. / one husband only. This is the Greek word { 1. _ G1520 one - εἷς / Heis } - A primary numeral one. - one and no more, singularity – only.

A woman is to have { 1. Husband. Never is any man commanded to have { 1. Wife. The Greek uses these words to make this clear distinction. YET WE SEE - The Trinitarian Translators have made changes and have formulated how the Greek words MIA and HEIS are used in formulating their anti - polygamy doctrine, but they use these words correctly when it come to their Trinitarian doctrine. AS WE SEE - here in 1Jn 5:7 – 8 - 8: For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are { G1520 1. _ one - εἷς / Heis }

:8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three are { agreed - united or AGREEMENT or UNITY = G3391 μία / mia } unto { 1. _ G1520 one - εἷς / Heis.

Eph 5:31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be agreed - united or AGREED or UNITED = μία / mia } flesh.

To state that a bishop or a deacon must be the husband of ONE wife is simply not what the manuscripts are saying - the authors used the Greek word - μία / mia - meaning - “ a wife “ the verse is commanding bishops and deacons to be married men, not to only have one single wife.

We find that the Translations are good translations but the Trinitarians focused on key, specific few subjects that they wanted to change to European Church doctrines
after they had waited for nearly 2000 years just to actually make a translation of the manuscripts. And these changes are consistent, they consistently make these same changes throughout the entire Bible, adding and removing and changing words to change the message that they want to be the faith they aspire to in specific, key, particular teachings already in the 15 th and 16 th Century European Churches, completely bypassing the actual translating of the Bible for nearly the last 2000 previous years.






 


To state that a bishop or a deacon must be the husband of ONE wife is simply not what the manuscripts are saying - the authors used the Greek word - μία / mia - meaning - “ a wife “ the verse is commanding bishops and deacons to be married men, not to only have one single wife.
That's weird. They must be married? Paul wasn't and he encouraged em to stay alone.
 
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