Hebrew study for beginners

[Garee]

Is God a man? Absolutely not. But He can take on the form of a man and indwell a man if He so wills (in fact according to the Scriptures He has and did on multiple occasions). According to the ancient pre-Christian Rabbis (see the Targum Jonathan ben-Uzziel from the mid-1st century) when Yah'hoveh Elohim did this it was the Word of God (the Son...YHVH manifest).

So why was Jesus Christ able to destroy Satan and his armies in Rev. 17:14? Because???

Hi thanks for the reply.

I would offer. Its is the work of God not seen working in the son of man, Jesus seen .God is not a man neither is he worshiped as one . He can put his Spirit in Man like any beast of the field but that does not make him a creature rather than the one Creator

I would offer first as new creatures those that are given a new born -again spirit that will never die . We do not wrestle against flesh and blood the temporal things seen .But do against wrestle against spirits of lies in high places . Satan the spirit of error is called the god of this world .(the things made)

Christ indwells every believer as a creation called sons of God or children of Light . But as the Spirit of truth God has no beginning of days or end of life and therefore is without mother and father.No genealogy.

Hebrews 7:1-4King James Version For this Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him; To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace; Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually.Now consider how great this man was, unto whom even the patriarch Abraham gave the tenth of the spoils.

In Hebrew 7 he appeared as a vision (theophany) called a great man. . . in anticipation of the son of man, Jesus our brother in the lord in respect to the one time three days and nights propmised outward demonstration of the Father working in flesh and blood dying mankind .

Literal flesh and blood signified as sinful was needed to demonstrate the work of the invisible father . A vision or theophany vision could not represent flesh typified as sinful. . literal flesh was needed

Note. . .(PURPLE) by personal comment )

Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:...... That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, ((What the eyes see ) but after the Spirit. (The unseen things of God.)

Again a theophany or vision like used with Moses and Elias to represent all things written in the law and prophets (sola scriptura) Is not literal flesh and blood . Flesh and blood was needed to put away sin in the flesh

Matthew 17:3And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him.

The same with the "man of sin" is not a literal man but the spirit of error called legion as a antichrist (another teaching authroity ) Because he works in many antichrists, false prophets false apostles .

Like he did with Peter used a one of the may antichrists (false teachers) in Mathew 16 . The one spirit of error Satan as the legion rebuking the Spirit of God forbidding the son of man Jesus from doing the will of the unseen Holy father

2 Thessalonians 2:3-4 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.

Lucifer was to guard the glory of the Creation by the Creator but usurped the glory of God as the god of this world. . through the use of a creature The Serpent the most beautiful in the garden before the fall . . In effect saying look at my beauty and live forever. . why believe in a God not seen ?

Satan has no form but is called the "man of sin" the father of lies . . children of darkness ,

God is Spirit of light (God is Light ) and not that he can on lt create it temporally day 4 (Sun and Moon) ,

His light defeats the spirit of darkness (Revelation 17:4 )

 

[Garee]

The topic was can someone help me learn about the Hebrew language, not whether Christ id the Son of God and if this means He is God. See the OP....but this is a good conversation also (though we could start a new thread)

Learning the Hebrew or Greek does not guarantee someone is rightfully dividing the living word of God needed to seek the approval of God not seen as two walking together . .

2 Timothy 2:15King James Version Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

Hebrew or Greek can be helpful when looking to the etymology the foundational meaning of a word. Changing the meaning of one word it can destroy commandments .

Deuteronomy 4:2King James Version Ye shall not add unto the word (singular) which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it(singular), that ye may keep the commandments (plural) of the Lord your God which I command you.

 

[Brother Paul]

Hi thanks for the reply.

I would offer. Its is the work of God not seen working in the son of man, Jesus seen .God is not a man neither is he worshiped as one . He can put his Spirit in Man like any beast of the field but that does not make him a creature rather than the one Creator

I would offer first as new creatures those that are given a new born -again spirit that will never die . We do not wrestle against flesh and blood the temporal things seen .But do against wrestle against spirits of lies in high places . Satan the spirit of error is called the god of this world .(the things made)

Christ indwells every believer as a creation called sons of God or children of Light . But as the Spirit of truth God has no beginning of days or end of life and therefore is without mother and father.No genealogy.

Hebrews 7:1-4King James Version For this Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him; To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace; Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually.Now consider how great this man was, unto whom even the patriarch Abraham gave the tenth of the spoils.

In Hebrew 7 he appeared as a vision (theophany) called a great man. . . in anticipation of the son of man, Jesus our brother in the lord in respect to the one time three days and nights propmised outward demonstration of the Father working in flesh and blood dying mankind .

Literal flesh and blood signified as sinful was needed to demonstrate the work of the invisible father . A vision or theophany vision could not represent flesh typified as sinful. . literal flesh was needed

Note. . .(PURPLE) by personal comment )

Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:...... That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, ((What the eyes see ) but after the Spirit. (The unseen things of God.)

Again a theophany or vision like used with Moses and Elias to represent all things written in the law and prophets (sola scriptura) Is not literal flesh and blood . Flesh and blood was needed to put away sin in the flesh

Matthew 17:3And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him.

The same with the "man of sin" is not a literal man but the spirit of error called legion as a antichrist (another teaching authroity ) Because he works in many antichrists, false prophets false apostles .

Like he did with Peter used a one of the may antichrists (false teachers) in Mathew 16 . The one spirit of error Satan as the legion rebuking the Spirit of God forbidding the son of man Jesus from doing the will of the unseen Holy father

2 Thessalonians 2:3-4 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.

Lucifer was to guard the glory of the Creation by the Creator but usurped the glory of God as the god of this world. . through the use of a creature The Serpent the most beautiful in the garden before the fall . . In effect saying look at my beauty and live forever. . why believe in a God not seen ?

Satan has no form but is called the "man of sin" the father of lies . . children of darkness ,

God is Spirit of light (God is Light ) and not that he can on lt create it temporally day 4 (Sun and Moon) ,

His light defeats the spirit of darkness (Revelation 17:4 )

Yes! God is NOT a man and should not be worshipped as a man but God manifest or incarnate as a man is still God and we may worship Him. When God appears, this is the brightness of His glory, the visible image of the invisible God, this is why the Religious leaders of Jesus day KNEW He was saying He is God and wanted to stone Him for blaspheme. He often said things like "Before Abraham was, I AM" and that He and the Father are ONE. And John says "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God". Why? Because He is God and there is only one (and He has revealed Himself in three personae). The YHVH who IS, has revealed Himself as the Father, the same one and only YHVH has revealed Himself as the Son/Word, and the same one and only YHVH is the Spirit.

So why was the Lamb able to defeat Satan and his armies? Type Revelations 17:14 next? Why are you afraid to say it? Come on...because He IS the....the who? What is He?

 

[Brother Paul]

Learning the Hebrew or Greek does not guarantee someone is rightfully dividing the living word of God needed to seek the approval of God not seen as two walking together . .

2 Timothy 2:15King James Version Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

Hebrew or Greek can be helpful when looking to the etymology the foundational meaning of a word. Changing the meaning of one word it can destroy commandments .

Deuteronomy 4:2King James Version Ye shall not add unto the word (singular) which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it(singular), that ye may keep the commandments (plural) of the Lord your God which I command you.

Ok, I knew you could not answer so I will. The Christ, the Lamb, was able to defeat Satan and his armies because

He IS the Lord of lords

Now we already established that the one and only God (Yah'hoveh) IS the Lord of lords. So the Lamb IS Yah'hoveh!

So are you a Jehovah's Witness? I ask because only JWs cannot say this, even tho it is the word (unless John is a liar or the Bible contradicted itself)

There are more examples if you insist.

 

[Garee]

Yes! God is NOT a man and should not be worshipped as a man but God manifest or incarnate as a man is still God and we may worship Him. When God appears, this is the brightness of His glory, the visible image of the invisible God, this is why the Religious leaders of Jesus day KNEW He was saying He is God and wanted to stone Him for blaspheme. He often said things like "Before Abraham was, I AM" and that He and the Father are ONE. And John says "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God". Why? Because He is God and there is only one (and He has revealed Himself in three personae). The YHVH who IS, has revealed Himself as the Father, the same one and only YHVH has revealed Himself as the Son/Word, and the same one and only YHVH is the Spirit.

So why was the Lamb able to defeat Satan and his armies? Type Revelations 17:14 next? Why are you afraid to say it? Come on...because He IS the....the who? What is He?

Ok, I knew you could not answer so I will. The Christ, the Lamb, was able to defeat Satan and his armies because

He IS the Lord of lords

Now we already established that the one and only God (Yah'hoveh) IS the Lord of lords. So the Lamb IS Yah'hoveh!

So are you a Jehovah's Witness? I ask because only JWs cannot say this, even tho it is the word (unless John is a liar or the Bible contradicted itself)

There are more examples if you insist.

I have answered it. Christ is represented as the father the Holy Spirit of God that works in sons of God (Christians) the Spirit of Sonship by which we can call out Abba .

God is not a man .never was never could be

Christ is the lamb slain from the foundation of the world the 6 days he did work . . . demonstrated to the world 2000 years ago .

 

[Garee]

Ok, I knew you could not answer so I will. The Christ, the Lamb, was able to defeat Satan and his armies because

He IS the Lord of lords

Now we already established that the one and only God (Yah'hoveh) IS the Lord of lords. So the Lamb IS Yah'hoveh!

So are you a Jehovah's Witness? I ask because only JWs cannot say this, even tho it is the word (unless John is a liar or the Bible contradicted itself)

There are more examples if you insist.

Christ the Spirit of the father is Lord of lords .Not jesus the son of man that was used for the propmised outward 1 time demonstration of our invisible God .
The Spirit of Christ is the Spirit of son ship by which we cry Abba .as if God was a literal Father . In that way the son of man Jesus is our brother in the lord .

 

[Rhema]

Rhema. In the Hebrew the word ME is not there in Isaiah 48:16 it ends with Saleh (to send or be sent).

You keep saying this, and I keep asking you to provide proof of that claim, and yet you won't.

You keep saying the word ME is not there, yet you don't know Hebrew, nor will give any citation from any Hebrew scholars that say this.

I showed that your own source (chabad.org) has the word ME in their Hebrew Bible.

So again, put up or shut up. Or at least post where you got this wrong idea from.

WHY do you think the word ME is not there when it exists in ALL the translations I know of.

Show me ONE translation where the English word "me" is not present, and I'll put this in for review with our translation team.

If you can't support your wildass claim, then I can't trust you on anything else you say.
(Why should I ?)

Rhema

 

[Rhema]

I think you should look at this passage in a number of versions, as the NRSV is a terrible and intentionally tainted presentation (in many places) of the Critical Text.

It is clear throughout all versions, save some purposefully altered heretical Bibles like the NIV, that Jeremiah is telling the people that what they know of as the Law has been tampered with by the scribes.

That's why Jesus had to preach the good news once again. It had been lost. The pen of the scribes had made it into a lie.

Rhema

 

[Brother Paul]

You keep saying this, and I keep asking you to provide proof of that claim, and yet you won't.

You keep saying the word ME is not there, yet you don't know Hebrew, nor will give any citation from any Hebrew scholars that say this.

I showed that your own source (chabad.org) has the word ME in their Hebrew Bible.

So again, put up or shut up. Or at least post where you got this wrong idea from.

WHY do you think the word ME is not there when it exists in ALL the translations I know of.

Show me ONE translation where the English word "me" is not present, and I'll put this in for review with our translation team.

If you can't support your wildass claim, then I can't trust you on anything else you say.
(Why should I ?)

Rhema

As you will sir! I thought by showing you the actual word ( and the lack of the word for "me")
that I was demonstrating my claim. As I have said it could be the me is implied, not literally there however, our controversy was about who the "me" is speaking about.

And it appears however that virtually all Hebrew Scholars agree it is about the Prophet so I stand corrected. And by this I would have to suppose this is also true in Zechariah 12:10, though I believe this "me" is also speaking about the one YHVH sends (who is also YHVH).

 

[Rhema]

As you will sir! I thought by showing you the actual word ( and the lack of the word for "me")

(Sigh..) Then what, may I ask, is the actual word for "me" in Hebrew when written as a separate direct object?

As I have said it could be the me is implied

Yes. And you just said it again, but all you have done is keep saying this, still not providing any source or link to a Hebrew grammar that supports or explains your claim.

WHY "could it be that the me is implied" ??

And where did you get that idea from?

Hebrew study for beginners

I would think we cannot divorce our own private interpretation as personal commentaries called heresises from His written interpretation. As it is writen or called sola scriptura. It is the full measure of the faith of our invisible God . It is called the book of law. . not the book of...

www.talkjesus.com

And by this I would have to suppose this is also true in Zechariah 12:10

No, not at all. It depends upon the perspective of the speaker within the context of the passage.

though I believe this "me" is also speaking about the one YHVH sends

one can make an extremely compelling case that the reference in Isaiah was to himself and the reference in Zechariah was to the Messiah,

Rhema

 

[Brother Paul]

(Sigh..) Then what, may I ask, is the actual word for "me" in Hebrew when written as a separate direct object?


Yes. And you just said it again, but all you have done is keep saying this, still not providing any source or link to a Hebrew grammar that supports or explains your claim.

WHY "could it be that the me is implied" ??

And where did you get that idea from?

Hebrew study for beginners

I would think we cannot divorce our own private interpretation as personal commentaries called heresises from His written interpretation. As it is writen or called sola scriptura. It is the full measure of the faith of our invisible God . It is called the book of law. . not the book of...

www.talkjesus.com

No, not at all. It depends upon the perspective of the speaker within the context of the passage.





Rhema

There is no ancient Hebrew word for "me" as a separate or personal object. Not here or in either Zechariah passage I posted (thus
"lack thereof")


I get the idea it must be implied from all English Tanakh translations by the post-Masoretic Rabbis and Scholars. So again the question is who is this implied "me" and I believe due to the associated pronouns that it is the one speaking not the prophet but as I searched they all agree with your perspective (the prophet) so I said "I stand corrected"

 

[Rhema]

There is no ancient Hebrew word for "me" as a separate or personal object.

Uh... that would be a personal pronoun written as a direct object of the sentence.

However, I think that Hebrew is a bit more complicated than that, since there are stand alone pronouns when such is the subject of a sentence, but personal pronouns would be indicated by suffixes (ending letters) when occurring as the direct object of a sentence.

Personal pronouns​

The Hebrew personal pronouns — corresponding to English I, you, them, me, and so on — are realized in some cases as full words, and in some cases as inflectional endings on other words (that is, as suffixes in conjugated and declined forms).​

​

The inflectional-ending personal pronoun suffixes are used ... when the pronoun is the direct object of a verb.​

Appendix:Hebrew pronouns - Wiktionary, the free dictionary

en.wiktionary.org

Upon further reflection, (and a quick trip through the Cambridge English Dictionary) I'm now fairly sure that you and I are having a "disconnect" with regards to the word "imply." Pronouns are indicated by suffixes, not implied. An "implication" is a referent to an unsure thing, whereas something sure would be indicated.

The imprecision implied indicated by the word "imply," bothers me, in that the pronoun "me" IS in the Hebrew text.

But I have always been upfront to say that Hebrew gives me a headache, and when in seminary, I could always walk down the hall to the Semitic Languages department. Alas, no longer.

Perhaps one day, @clintos will be able to set me straight.

Rhema

So again the question is who is this implied "me" and I believe due to the associated pronouns that it is the one speaking not the prophet but as I searched they all agree with your perspective (the prophet) so I said "I stand corrected"

Okay, let me try again. Who the "me" may be is a matter of interpretation, not translation, so there is truly NO need for you to "stand corrected" as a matter of translation.

When JW's say that Jesus is the Archangel Michael, that's an interpretation. And while I strongly disagree with their interpretation, I've not found that particular belief to be the result of a mistranslation. (They have other mistranslation problems.)

And as I stated above, I now know that your use of the word "implied" bothered me, in that the "ME" IS in the text, as indicated by the suffixes.

Whew, thank you kindly for bearing with me until I could figure that out.


( I miss the old translation debates I had in seminary.... my apologies for not keeping my pit bull instincts in check.)

 

[Brother Paul]

Uh... that would be a personal pronoun written as a direct object of the sentence.

However, I think that Hebrew is a bit more complicated than that, since there are stand alone pronouns when such is the subject of a sentence, but personal pronouns would be indicated by suffixes (ending letters) when occurring as the direct object of a sentence.

Personal pronouns​

The Hebrew personal pronouns — corresponding to English I, you, them, me, and so on — are realized in some cases as full words, and in some cases as inflectional endings on other words (that is, as suffixes in conjugated and declined forms).​

​

The inflectional-ending personal pronoun suffixes are used ... when the pronoun is the direct object of a verb.​

Appendix:Hebrew pronouns - Wiktionary, the free dictionary

en.wiktionary.org

Upon further reflection, (and a quick trip through the Cambridge English Dictionary) I'm now fairly sure that you and I are having a "disconnect" with regards to the word "imply." Pronouns are indicated by suffixes, not implied. An "implication" is a referent to an unsure thing, whereas something sure would be indicated.

The imprecision implied indicated by the word "imply," bothers me, in that the pronoun "me" IS in the Hebrew text.

But I have always been upfront to say that Hebrew gives me a headache, and when in seminary, I could always walk down the hall to the Semitic Languages department. Alas, no longer.

Perhaps one day, @clintos will be able to set me straight.

Rhema


Okay, let me try again. Who the "me" may be is a matter of interpretation, not translation, so there is truly NO need for you to "stand corrected" as a matter of translation.

When JW's say that Jesus is the Archangel Michael, that's an interpretation. And while I strongly disagree with their interpretation, I've not found that particular belief to be the result of a mistranslation. (They have other mistranslation problems.)

And as I stated above, I now know that your use of the word "implied" bothered me, in that the "ME" IS in the text, as indicated by the suffixes.

Whew, thank you kindly for bearing with me until I could figure that out.


( I miss the old translation debates I had in seminary.... my apologies for not keeping my pit bull instincts in check.)
[/QUOTE

I still do not see you it. But I will submit to the consensus of those who claim to.

 

[Rhema]

I still do not see you it. But I will submit to the consensus of those who claim to.

Brother Paul, my apologies. I don't know how I could explain things better. I did try.

I see a great difference between translation and interpretation. And at the risk of offending (some), you and I will have a bier someday up in heaven and we'll figure it all out then.

Blessings,
Rhema

 

[Garee]

Uh... that would be a personal pronoun written as a direct object of the sentence.

However, I think that Hebrew is a bit more complicated than that, since there are stand alone pronouns when such is the subject of a sentence, but personal pronouns would be indicated by suffixes (ending letters) when occurring as the direct object of a sentence.

Personal pronouns​

The Hebrew personal pronouns — corresponding to English I, you, them, me, and so on — are realized in some cases as full words, and in some cases as inflectional endings on other words (that is, as suffixes in conjugated and declined forms).​

​

The inflectional-ending personal pronoun suffixes are used ... when the pronoun is the direct object of a verb.​

Appendix:Hebrew pronouns - Wiktionary, the free dictionary

en.wiktionary.org

Upon further reflection, (and a quick trip through the Cambridge English Dictionary) I'm now fairly sure that you and I are having a "disconnect" with regards to the word "imply." Pronouns are indicated by suffixes, not implied. An "implication" is a referent to an unsure thing, whereas something sure would be indicated.

The imprecision implied indicated by the word "imply," bothers me, in that the pronoun "me" IS in the Hebrew text.

But I have always been upfront to say that Hebrew gives me a headache, and when in seminary, I could always walk down the hall to the Semitic Languages department. Alas, no longer.

Perhaps one day, @clintos will be able to set me straight.

Rhema


Okay, let me try again. Who the "me" may be is a matter of interpretation, not translation, so there is truly NO need for you to "stand corrected" as a matter of translation.

When JW's say that Jesus is the Archangel Michael, that's an interpretation. And while I strongly disagree with their interpretation, I've not found that particular belief to be the result of a mistranslation. (They have other mistranslation problems.)

And as I stated above, I now know that your use of the word "implied" bothered me, in that the "ME" IS in the text, as indicated by the suffixes.

Whew, thank you kindly for bearing with me until I could figure that out.


( I miss the old translation debates I had in seminary.... my apologies for not keeping my pit bull instincts in check.)

It would seem the word "me" is the voice of the Father that he declared by his prophets as apostles

I am not JW but it would seem they are partly correct

"Arch messenger" rather than "archangel". Archangel a fake word .The Greek angelos is translated "messenger" in English . Someone used the word angel rather than messenger. . . an apostle (sent one) .

It brought confusion and wonderings as if there was a third party And not two as the one witness the unseen Father working in his son the apostle messenger .Jesus

Jesus the son of man was the chief apostles (messenger sent ) when he spoke he spoke the words as the will the father gave to him.

Giving meaning to the word Michael a query . . Who is like God . . . .no man

 

[Garee]

Ok, I knew you could not answer so I will. The Christ, the Lamb, was able to defeat Satan and his armies because

He IS the Lord of lords

Now we already established that the one and only God (Yah'hoveh) IS the Lord of lords. So the Lamb IS Yah'hoveh!

So are you a Jehovah's Witness? I ask because only JWs cannot say this, even tho it is the word (unless John is a liar or the Bible contradicted itself)

There are more examples if you insist.

The Son of man Jesus is not Lord of lords. As our brother in the lord he had the the power of the father in him working to both reveal his will and empower him to perform it to the good pleasure of the Father .

Mark 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

The gospel in its entirety below. God not served by dying hands of mankind

Philippians 2:13-14 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure. Do all things without murmurings and disputings

The wrath of God comes to those who worship the creation seen rather than the Creator . . . ,(not seen) "

Romans 1:18-225 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world (let there be and it was good as the law of His faith) ?are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, (inivisable neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

 

[Brother Paul]

The Son of man Jesus is not Lord of lords. As our brother in the lord he had the the power of the father in him working to both reveal his will and empower him to perform it to the good pleasure of the Father .

Mark 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

The gospel in its entirety below. God not served by dying hands of mankind

Philippians 2:13-14 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure. Do all things without murmurings and disputings

The wrath of God comes to those who worship the creation seen rather than the Creator . . . ,(not seen) "

Romans 1:18-225 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world (let there be and it was good as the law of His faith) ?are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, (inivisable neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

So what is the reason given for why the Lamb was able to overcome and defeat Satan and his armies as revealed in Revelations 17::14? After you say it out loud please write the passage hére...

 

[Brother Paul]

The Son of man Jesus is not Lord of lords. As our brother in the lord he had the the power of the father in him working to both reveal his will and empower him to perform it to the good pleasure of the Father .

Mark 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

The gospel in its entirety below. God not served by dying hands of mankind

Philippians 2:13-14 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure. Do all things without murmurings and disputings

The wrath of God comes to those who worship the creation seen rather than the Creator . . . ,(not seen) "

Romans 1:18-225 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world (let there be and it was good as the law of His faith) ?are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, (inivisable neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

Please write out what the Holy Scriptures say in John 1:1 here? Thanks! I will wait. You seem to be equivocating the two roles and identifications Son of God and Son of man. So please write it out here? John 1:1...

 

[Garee]

Please write out what the Holy Scriptures say in John 1:1 here? Thanks! I will wait. You seem to be equivocating the two roles and identifications Son of God and Son of man. So please write it out here? John 1:1...

Hi thanks for the reply.

John 1 King James Version1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God

It boils down to the word faith as a work or called albor of Christ love .same thing work of faith labor of love.

Many form my experiences try and separate the inseparable . Faith is a work of God .God is not a word he is Spirit

I would offer my paraphrase of the King James paraphrase above one of many.

My paraphrase. . .In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was of God.. . .( again coming from)

The paraphrase the word was God and not of as ownership coming from God does not seem to work out in the end of the matter .

God is not a word. He is a Spirit that creates words ... Let there be and His testimony the bible is good.

In that way by the finger of God he created the word of God called the book of prophecy or book of the law the Bible called the letter of the word . Not to be confused with the spirit of the word

The law of faith,( Christ’s faith). . . No faith from us born faithless dead in our tresspases and sin without God in this present corrupted world .

Faith is a work that testifies . The testimony cannot be separated from faith the power of God not seen.​

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[Garee]

So what is the reason given for why the Lamb was able to overcome and defeat Satan and his armies as revealed in Revelations 17::14? After you say it out loud please write the passage hére...

Did you mean write out what I think the passage is saying.?

We know that the lamb of God slain speaks to the sufferings work of Christ the Holy Spirit of God . He performed that work of sufferings in jeopardy of his own Holy Spirit from the foundation of the world the six days the Father as God did work .

Revelation 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. . . .(not the demonstration of that unseen work, thousands of years later .)

The promised three days and night demonstration of the work finished during the 6 days when God was still working,

The promised demonstration came during the first century reformation when Jesus the Son of given words from the father he replied . ( it is finished )

No more demonstrations of the work which again was finished from the foundation. . We rest in Hs eternal rest (seventh day) not in respect to the outward demonstration . .three days and nights a shadow or the foundation