JonahofAkron
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- Oct 22, 2011
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Your accusing Paul of having not followed the Law as he said he did under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit?
Paul followed the Spirit to follow Messiah in following the Father's Commands.
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SignUp Now!Your accusing Paul of having not followed the Law as he said he did under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit?
Why the sarcasim?
Jesus was perfect and had no sin and he was the only person to follow the law to the "T". Of course, he performed the law perfectly.
Unfortunately, the rest of mankind could not do the same. That is why he had to die on the cross.
Surely, you misspoke when you stated your shock!
Jesus was the perfect sacricfice, the one who knew no sin but became sin on our behalf! He was absolutely righteous under the law!
Paul followed the Spirit to follow Messiah in following the Father's Commands.
No sarcasm here, just an honest question. This isn't the first time I have needed to ask for clarity from you. It very may well be that it is on my part that I have a hard time understanding you, bear with me. No sarcasm.
Nothing but truth spoken by you here.
You speak of me as if I was in shock. I did not use any exclamation points. Once again, I asked for clarity. One other time I asked for clarity and you provided perfect clarity and I appreciated it.
Jesus was righteous apart from the law. He did not need the Law to be declared righteous. In fact he took the glory that the law once had just by being here. He was more glorious than the law.
I believe you know this and agree (or I am completely off base) just somewhere we fail to connect on these truths.
Before he was converted?
And after. Where did he say that he changed his position on that? All I see is his continuing to follow after his 'conversion'.
I'd like to see scripture to support the claim that Paul was led by the Holy Spirit to keep the law blameless as his claim in Phil 3 states.
No where did Paul state that he doesn't keep the Law anymore and that is one of my points in this thread. We agree on that point. I am only insisting that his blamelessness according to the righteousness that is in the Law, that he had prior to his conversion to following Christ, was done in his own strength. Such is why he had been relying on it to be his righteousness before God as other Pharisees. Of course, after he knew Christ, he understood that the righteousness that is in the law pales in compares to the declared righteousness of God in Christ. Wherefore he stated that he wanted to be found in him and not having his own righteousness which is of the Law (even though I believe he still followed the law as he had the covenant confirmed through circumcision).
I hope that is clearly stated. If not please point out where I could use more clarity.
In Him,
Gary
When he looked at himself or looked at others, Saul of Tarsus considered himself to be righteous. But one day he saw himself compared with the risen Lord Jesus Christ! It was then that this heart was genuinely "circumcised" and he forsook "works righteousness" accepting by faith the perfect righteousness of Jesus Christ.
If I correctly understand you, you're saying that righteousness is in Messiah alone and that Paul lived out Torah, but was found righteous on Messiah. I agree with this.
Kit Carson: Circumcision never was a requirement for a heathen Gentile like myself anyway. This was only for those of the Jewish Faith.
Kit Carson: But Paul himself circumcised Titus I think it was, and this was OK and nothing wrong with that either way, as it did help to reach out and to mingle with and reach those still holding to the Law and not willing to accept the new. It was a way of having common ground.
gdemoss
The book of Romans does say:
Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
Romans 2:9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
Romans 2:10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
But it also says:
Romans 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
Romans 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
And you have these verses:
Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
Colossians 3:10 And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:
Colossians 3:11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.
Actually, there is no such thing as unclean food. If something was declared unclean, then the Lord was saying, "that is not food". By declaring something clean, He was saying, "this is food." It wasn't just for Jews these dietary laws, they were for all men for all time. There are perfectly good reasons for God giving us His 'recipe' for health. He loves us and wants us to be at the peak of physical, mental, and spiritual health. If we spend most of our dining time partaking of substances unfit for human consumption, regardless of whether or not they taste good, we will suffer the consequences.Really well worded brakelite. And you have a valid point about laws governing everything. But I think you stop short of seeing the whole picture of the need for Law. You know the scriptures well. You know that the Law was not made for the righteous but the unrighteous. Therefore, there will only be a need for law as long as there are unrighteous people who need to be governed. In some instances of Gods law he made things unlawful to do that in and of themselves are not wrong at all, but only wrong because God said so. For instance clean and unclean food.
Hopefully, you no longer sit around all day dreaming of women in wicked ways. (I speak with tongue very firmly placed in cheek) Nevertheless, you don't do such a thing, nor I, because it is as you say, Christ in us restrains us from such wickedness. We now have the power in us to keep the spirit of the law as it was intended from the very beginning. The same of course with the 6th commandment as Jesus pointed out. That said however, in keeping the spirit of the law, is not the letter of the law kept also? In fact, could it not be said that it is impossible to keep the spirit of the law and not keep the letter? So you say you keep the spirit of the law regarding the 4th commandment through the rest you have in Christ. If the rest you speak of however was truly the spirit so to speak of the 4th commandment then would it not be fair to say that the letter of the 4th commandment must be observed also? So what's missing?Usually when someone says that we must keep Gods law, they are referring to the 10 commandments, which are Holy just and good for the purpose that God purposed to use them. Gentile believers are under a greater Law than the 10 commandments, the Law of Christ. The law that states that Christ is the righteousness of God manifest in the flesh and only those who walk as he walked are truly righteous. Those who reply that Christ kept the law, so those that follow him would keep the law in order to be walking as he walked, miss the whole point of what God proved in Christ. There is no law that can govern like the light that was brought into the world. Jesus made it clear. I can sit around all day and picture women in all kinds of wicked ways yet still keep the 7 commandment by the letter. I cannot be righteous by doing so. If I, however, put on the Lord Jesus Christ and walk in him by denying my self through serving God and others as he was an example to do, then I fulfill the righteousness that is in the law without ever even having to know the law. If I truly live a life of self denial then I need not worry about keeping the Sabbath on a particular day of the week because my actions would be fulfilling the righteousness of the Sabbath everyday always.
Are Jewish folk saved in any manner different from the rest of us? Is God racist? Is He a respecter of persons? God does not have one method of salvation for Jews and a different one for non-Jews. Everyone is saved the same way under the same program—by grace through faith. Paul uses the analogy of an olive tree to explain that all Gentiles who are saved are grafted into the stock of Israel. “And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert grafted in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree; Boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, thou bearest not the root, but the root [supports] thee” (Romans 11:17, 18).My question and point of this thread is directed at the Jewish believers. They have born the seal of the covenant that cannot be annulled. My observations are that it seems that they are obligated to keep the law but not for the purpose of being righteous as righteousness comes by following Christ. God hath declared his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past.
What do you think? Is there something in scripture that you can see that refutes this that I am blind to? May our loving Lord guide us into all truth.
Your brother in Christ,
Gary
Actually, there is no such thing as unclean food. If something was declared unclean, then the Lord was saying, "that is not food". By declaring something clean, He was saying, "this is food." It wasn't just for Jews these dietary laws, they were for all men for all time. There are perfectly good reasons for God giving us His 'recipe' for health. He loves us and wants us to be at the peak of physical, mental, and spiritual health. If we spend most of our dining time partaking of substances unfit for human consumption, regardless of whether or not they taste good, we will suffer the consequences.
Before there was ever a man created; before sin ever entered into the heart of Lucifer; when righteousness and love ruled the heavens, there must have been law.
Despite the fact that there were only righteous beings living in obligation to it. We know this because we are told that Lucifer (Satan) became a liar and a murderer and was such right from the beginning. He became a sinner because there was a law already in place which he disobeyed. 'Sin is the transgression against the law'.
There is confusion with the idea that the "law is only for the unrighteous". To my mind that does not mean that if one is declared righteous by the Father due to His faith in Jesus, that means the law itself has been invalidated.
Certainly we are no longer under its condemnation, but only if we are living the life of the Lifegiver, as you say. If we stray and sin, the law comes straight back into effect and the Holy Spirit points to the law and convicts us. We confess, are cleansed from all the unrighteousness we repent of, and we get up and go forward.
Our focus is always on Christ. We abide in Him, trusting fully in Him, the Author and Finisher of our faith. And day by day we become more like Him. We study His life, we see where we fall short, we pray, confess our frailty, admit to our utter need of Him for without Him we can do nothing, He gives us more power, and we grow.
Below is Barnes commentary
We now have the power in us to keep the spirit of the law as it was intended from the very beginning.
The same of course with the 6th commandment as Jesus pointed out. That said however, in keeping the spirit of the law, is not the letter of the law kept also?
In fact, could it not be said that it is impossible to keep the spirit of the law and not keep the letter?
So you say you keep the spirit of the law regarding the 4th commandment through the rest you have in Christ.
If the rest you speak of however was truly the spirit so to speak of the 4th commandment then would it not be fair to say that the letter of the 4th commandment must be observed also? So what's missing?
Are Jewish folk saved in any manner different from the rest of us?
Is God racist?
Is He a respecter of persons?
God does not have one method of salvation for Jews and a different one for non-Jews. Everyone is saved the same way under the same program—by grace through faith.
Paul uses the analogy of an olive tree to explain that all Gentiles who are saved are grafted into the stock of Israel. “And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert grafted in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree; Boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, thou bearest not the root, but the root [supports] thee” (Romans 11:17, 18).
The Christian religion is based on a Jewish manual called the Bible. (In this light, it is difficult to understand how any professed Christian could be anti-Semitic.)
Christianity is not a new religion, but rather the completion of the Jewish faith. The new covenant is made “with the house of Israel”! God never makes a salvation covenant with Gentiles.
In fact, nowhere in Scripture do you find any saving covenant made with anyone but Israelites! So if you want to be saved, you must be born again as a spiritual Jew.
So with this in mind, we can now better understand what Paul meant when he said, “And so all Israel shall be saved” (Romans 11:26). Some take this verse to mean that God will ultimately save all literal Jews. If this were true, it would contradict every principle of God’s dealings with humans throughout history and Scripture. God is not a racist. In Jesus’ eyes, “There is neither Jew nor Greek” (Galatians 3:28).
We are saved based on choices we make regarding God’s provision, not on national status or physical citizenship. But if, when Paul says that “all Israel will be saved,” he is speaking of spiritual Israel, and if we understand that we become a “true Jew” only by a choice, then it all makes sense.
So with regards the law, the book of Revelation 14:12 tells us that those who refuse the mark of the beast keep God's commandments and have the faith of Jesus. Thus faith and commandment keeping go hand in hand, and apply to Jew and gentile (spiritual Jews) alike.
Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
Rom 10:5-6 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.
(6) But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above
Rom 10:12-13 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
(13) For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
William R. Newell - 2004 - Religion - 588 pages