Bill
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Iam not Jesus , but i am the Sword of GodThat's Jesus
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SignUp Now!Iam not Jesus , but i am the Sword of GodThat's Jesus
I learned many years ago in online discussions of doctrine, that when someone tries to snow me with their pretension to NT Greek scholarship, to go to the true recognized scholars of NT Greek. So, I'll present what true scholarship says about the Greek you have twisted and distorted.I'd be happy to. Actually, let me give you the exact scripture verse, even.
και την περικεφαλαιαν του σωτηριου δεξασθε και την μαχαιραν του πνευματος ο εστιν ρημα θεου(Ephesians 6:17 GRK)
"O" is neuter to agree with PNEUMA, not feminine to link to the word MAXAIRA (sword). The PNEUMA is the RHEMA of GOD. The Spirit is the Word(speaking) of God, not the Sword. When one really digs into the Greek, one even finds that the Sword is prayer.
For a longer explanation, please see my post here: It IS worth the read.
Well there... Hi to all.Sword of the Spirit: The sword of the Spirit is the Word of God. This includes God's written Word (the Bible), God's incarnate Word (Jesus as Logos), and God's spoken Word (the Holy Spirit within us).
It's my first post here, and I'm about to post something that might just freak everybody out on this website, but please bear with me... while my post is meant to edify it will take some thinking (if not study) on your part. In other words, don't dismiss this post out of hand, and yes, I quite understand the scope of its implications.
I wish to...
Just a caution, though, don't fall for the fallacy of Appeal to Authority and dismiss my words out of hand because you haven't heard this teaching from your authorities. I can't count the number of times I've won this argument with Greek linguists. The modern teaching of Eph. 6:17 fails, because the practice of reading the English language has morphed over the last 400 years.
The modifying clause ("which is the RHEMA of God") is written in perfect English in the KJV because the modifying clause is supposed to attach to the antecedent noun. But Americans attach the modifying clause to "Sword" as they drop out the clause "of the Spirit" up inside their heads. It's just the way Americans read English. But in Greek there is no confusion, in that the gender of the modifier follows that of the noun which is modified.
Do you read Greek? I'm not trying to put you down, or puff myself up, it's just a fact of language that when we translate LOGOS into "Word" and we also translate RHEMA into "Word," English speakers cannot tell the difference between the LOGOS and the RHEMA. You can't see it - literally.
LINK to Liddell Scott Lexicon for RHEMA
A. that which is said or spoken, word, saying,
Now I'll go back and check, but I'm pretty sure that I did not say that RHEMA was the Holy Spirit, but rather that the RHEMA OF GOD is the Holy Spirit. The voice of God SPEAKS to people, and He expects that we as believers are to hear his voice (which is not the ideas from our own mind figuring things out). In Romans 10, Paul described what he heard on the Road to Damascus as RHEMA.
So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the RHEMA of God (the speaking by Holy Spirit).(Romans 10:17 KJV)
Paul's faith came from his hearing (on the Road to Damascus) and such hearing comes from the Holy Spirit - the RHEMA THEOU.
When Peter confessed the Son of Man, was it by his human thoughts that he figured this out? I trow not.
And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. (Matthew 16:17 KJV)
So who said this to Peter? Who told Peter? What RHEMA did Peter receive? A revelation from the Father in heaven (dia) by means of the Holy Spirit.
Yes, not RHEMA, but RHEMA THEOU, as shown above.
And I encourage you to do the entire word study for RHEMA, but let's start with the first verse in which it is written:
But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every RHEMA that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.(Matthew 4:4 KJV)
Sometimes these are recorded. Sometimes they are not.
Here was the Hebrews BIG mistake:
And they said unto Moses, Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die.(Exodus 20:19 KJV)
They rejected the RHEMA THEOU. It's a pretty scary thing the first time GOD talks to you.
Blessings,
Rhema
So when i tell you I am the Sword of God. Where does that fit ?I learned many years ago in online discussions of doctrine, that when someone tries to snow me with their pretension to NT Greek scholarship, to go to the true recognized scholars of NT Greek. So, I'll present what true scholarship says about the Greek you have twisted and distorted.
First from the BDAG which stands for Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich, a renowned Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other Early Christian Literature. It is a third edition, published in 2000, and is widely regarded as the standard authority on Greek words and their meanings.
Nowhere in the entire entry under rhema is it defined as the Holy Spirit! I'll quote the section about Eph. 6:17 -
"ῥῆμα 1 that which is said, word, saying, expression, or statement of any kind...Gener. the sing. brings together all the divine teachings as a unified whole, w. some such mng. as gospel, or confession: ἐγγύς σου τὸ ῥῆμά ἐστιν Ro 10:8a (Dt 30:14); cp. vs. 9 v.l. MSuggs, ‘The Word Is Near You’ Ro 10:6–10, JKnox Festschr. ’67, 289–312. Cp. Eph 5:26. ἐπότισεν ῥήματι he (Paul) gave (Artemilla) a drink of words to ponder AcPl Ha 4, 5. τὸ ῥῆμα τὸ εὐαγγελισθὲν εἰς ὑμᾶς 1 Pt 1:25b. W. objective gen. τὸ ῥῆμα τῆς πίστεως Ro 10:8b. W. subjective gen. ῥῆμα θεοῦ Eph 6:17; Hb 6:5. τὸ ῥ. κυρίου 1 Pt 1:25a (cp. Is 40:8)"
From the Expositor's Greek New Testament - "Eph 6:17... and the sword of the Spirit. The gen. here cannot be that of appos. (although it is so taken by Harl., Olsh., etc.), for the following explanation renders that inept. It must be the gen. of origin, = “the sword supplied by the Spirit”.—ὅ ἐστι ῥῆμα Θεοῦ: which is the word of God. Some strangely make the ὅ refer to the πνεύματος, = “the Spirit who is the Word of God” (Olsh., Von Sod., etc.); but nowhere else is the Spirit identified with the Word."
From H. Meyer Critical and Exegetical NT - "Eph 6:17...τὴν μάχαιραν τοῦ πνεύματος] The genitive cannot here be appositional (in opposition to Harless, Olshausen, Schenkel, and older expositors), since there follows the explanation ὅ ἐστι ῥῆμα Θεοῦ, from which it is clear that the sword of the Spirit is not the Spirit itself, but something distinct therefrom, namely, the word of God (comp. Heb 4:12). Comp. also Bleek. If Paul had wished to designate the Spirit itself as sword, the explanation ὅ ἐστι ῥῆμα Θεοῦ would have been inappropriate, inasmuch as the word of God and the Holy Spirit are different things;[311] in Romans, too, πνεῦμα means nothing else than the Holy Spirit."
From Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon - "Eph. 6:17... doctrine, instruction (cf. Winer's Grammar, 123 (117)): (τό) ῥῆμα (τοῦ) Θεοῦ, divine instruction by the preachers of the gospel, Rom 10:17 (R G; but L T Tr WH ῥήματος Χριστοῦ; others give ῥήματος here the sense of command, commission; (cf. Meyer)); saving truth which has God for its author, Eph 6:17; also τοῦ κυρίου, 1Pe 1:25; words of prophecy, prophetic announcement, τά ῥήματα τοῦ Θεοῦ, Rev 17:17, Rec. (others, οἱ λόγοι τοῦ Θεοῦ).
From the 1611/1769 King James version - "And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God:" (Eph 6:17 KJV)
From the 2021 NRSVue - "Take the helmet of salvation and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God." (Eph 6:17 NRSVue)
Over the span of 400+ years, the standard English translations make "sword" to be the "word", not the Spirit! I have many English translations, and I find none that translate rhema as being the Holy Spirit.
In this day, I only know of the con-artist TV-evangelists who try to define the "word" as the "Holy Spirit" and concoct a deceitful doctrine in order to fleece the gullible.
(B for effort?)I learned many years ago in online discussions of doctrine, that when someone tries to snow me with their pretension to NT Greek scholarship, to go to the true recognized scholars of NT Greek. So, I'll present what true scholarship says about the Greek you have twisted and distorted.
Because Nowhere did I say that.Nowhere in the entire entry under rhema is it defined as the Holy Spirit! I'll quote the section about Eph. 6:17 -
Well you can add Dr. Alfred Marshal to that list (from the Zondervan Interlinear) along with every other Greek teacher you know.Some strangely make the ὅ refer to the πνεύματος, = “the Spirit who is the Word of God” (Olsh., Von Sod., etc.); but nowhere else is the Spirit identified with the Word."
Well now you know what book you can trash.From the Expositor's Greek New Testament
Make that two.From H. Meyer Critical and Exegetical NT
He didn't. The author wished to designate that the Sword of RHEMA is prayer. So that's a Straw Man inside your book.If Paul had wished to designate the Spirit itself as sword, the explanation ὅ ἐστι ῥῆμα Θεοῦ would have been inappropriate,
Now I can agree with that, because the sword is prayer. The passage never said, nor ever meant to say that the Sword was the Spirit itself. The Greek text literally says that the PNUEMA is the RHEMA THEOU.from which it is clear that the sword of the Spirit is not the Spirit itself,
Which "word of God"? Does your "scholarly authority" mean LOGOS or RHEMA here? One cannot tell. And odds are that even he doesn't' know, and thinks it to mean BIBLE. So I'm not surprised that you would be just as confused as your authorities.inasmuch as the word of God and the Holy Spirit are different things
Sir. You truly cannot be that thick. In English, the modifying clause attaches to the antecedent noun. (Might you have a former 10th grade English teacher nearby?)Over the span of 400+ years, the standard English translations make "sword" to be the "word", not the Spirit! I have many English translations, and I find none that translate rhema as being the Holy Spirit.
The truth is, you don't read the King's English, and likely never did. You nor your pastors.From the 1611/1769 King James version - "And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God:" (Eph 6:17 KJV)
From the 2021 NRSVue - "Take the helmet of salvation and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God." (Eph 6:17 NRSVue)
As Trump would say, "You're a nasty little man. Just nasty." You don't know me. Why would you say such a nasty thing?In this day, I only know of the con-artist TV-evangelists who try to define the "word" as the "Holy Spirit" and concoct a deceitful doctrine in order to fleece the gullible.
It has been a long theological debate (decades before my time) as to whether the Bible IS the Word of God or whether the Bible CONTAINS the Word of God.
Technically, one could say that the Bible IS NOT the Word of God if there is anything in the Bible that directly states that it is NOT the Word of God. Oddly enough Paul provides such evidence:
But to the rest I, not the Lord, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her.(1 Corinthians 7:12 NKJV)
To the rest I say—I and not the Lord—that if any believer has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her.(1 Corinthians 7:12 NRSV)
Paul directly states that his council is from him and "not the Lord." If something is Not from the Lord, then it's not the Word of God. How could it be? Rather, it's the Word of Paul.
Now I'm sure there are other considerations and opinions and excuses and objections and rants and raves, but the above would lead one to conclude that the Bible contains the Word of God. Even Jesus seems to give testimony about this, since it is by Jesus that one is saved, not the scripture.
You search the Scriptures, for in them you think you have eternal life; and these are they which testify of Me.(John 5:39 NKJV)
"You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that testify on my behalf.(John 5:39 NRSV)
As one can read above, then, Jesus directly states that the scriptures (GRAPHE or Bible) testifies to Him - the Word of God (LOGOS).
So the Bible is not the Word of God, but rather is a testimony about the Word of God. It contains a testimony about the LOGOS(word) of God - Jesus.
And that testimony should be in our hearts rather than clutched to our hearts because of superstition in having a holy book.
You are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read by all men; clearly you are an epistle of Christ, ministered by us, written not with ink but by the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of flesh, that is, of the heart.(2 Corinthians 3:2-3 NKJV)
Of course there is more I could say, and I might do so later, but I think the above provides a good start for explaining my views.
God bless,
Rhema
(But by now, everybody should know that I'm not a Classic or Orthodox Trinitarian. I have forgotten more about the Trinity than I ever knew.
What you wrote is not your peculiar theory, but a demonic theory, i.e. in the way the Devil likes.
It is true that Dr. Alfred Marshall in a footnote indicates that rhema refers to the Spirit, not the sword; but of course with no explanation or commentary. For those who have the understanding of rhema as the utterance of the Spirit, it is explained as in the following on page 158.(B for effort?)
I rather think you snowed yourself. And at this point I can't tell if you just want to be combative or too emotionally worked up to read what I actually wrote.
Because Nowhere did I say that.
If you would take the time to cool down, take a deep breath, put on your reading speckles and try again, it might be beneficial, because NO WHERE did I say "RHEMA" is defined as the Holy Spirit. (Truly, like what's wrong with you dude. Your Straw Man crap isn't appreciated.)
I said the RHEMA of GOD is defined as the Holy Spirit in Ephesians. And if you don't know how to read Greek, none of your dictionaries or commentaries or expositories are going to help you understand what a modifying clause is and how modifiers must match the gender of the nouns they modify.
I gave a perfectly rational explanation, and you come back with this nonsense?
Well you can add Dr. Alfred Marshal to that list (from the Zondervan Interlinear) along with every other Greek teacher you know.
And it's not "strange." The grammar is simple, and just because "nowhere else is the Spirit identified with the Word" means it isn't so in Eph.6:17 ??
OMG what a wonderful way to trash scripture. It CAN'T be HERE (in this passage) because it isn't over THERE (in any other passage).
Well now you know what book you can trash.
Make that two.
He didn't. The author wished to designate that the Sword of RHEMA is prayer. So that's a Straw Man inside your book.
I don't "snow" anybody, sir, and you should learn to have some respect for people you don't know. Because I am dead certain at this point that you have no clue what I meant, or what Eph 6:17,18 means either. (Ahh... old guy. Now I get it. You don't have respect for anybody. Okay, it happens. I'll live with it.)
Now I can agree with that, because the sword is prayer. The passage never said, nor ever meant to say that the Sword was the Spirit itself. The Greek text literally says that the PNUEMA is the RHEMA THEOU.
πνευματος ο εστιν ρημα θεου
Which "word of God"? Does your "scholarly authority" mean LOGOS or RHEMA here? One cannot tell. And odds are that even he doesn't' know, and thinks it to mean BIBLE. So I'm not surprised that you would be just as confused as your authorities.
Sir. You truly cannot be that thick. In English, the modifying clause attaches to the antecedent noun. (Might you have a former 10th grade English teacher nearby?)
The modifying clause is "which is the word(RHEMA) of God" so what's the antecedent noun? Read your own quotes.
The truth is, you don't read the King's English, and likely never did. You nor your pastors.
As Trump would say, "You're a nasty little man. Just nasty." You don't know me. Why would you say such a nasty thing?
BUT... since your post seems to claim some air of scholarly superiority, I would ask two things. First, your CV. The seminary you graduated from.
Second. BY YOURSELF, give me your translation:
και την περικεφαλαιαν του σωτηριου δεξασθε και την μαχαιραν του πνευματος ο εστιν ρημα θεου δια πασης προσευχης και δεησεως προσευχομενοι εν παντι καιρω εν πνευματι και εις αυτο τουτο αγρυπνουντες εν παση προσκαρτερησει και δεησει περι παντων των αγιων
And if you don't read Greek, admit it.
(As kind as I can possibly be at this point),
Rhema
Lol , you make me laugh as if God is going to be offended by something so petty.Agreed.
@Rhema you need to think carefully with the statements you are making. Insulting the authenticity of scripture is insulting God. Do you believe God's helping hand has not been on the bible all these years? Of course it has!!
I worry about the remaining lifespan of all who mock the validity and truthfulness of scripture. Not saying you are 10/10 guilty, please note that, but you are certainly making statements that can stumble readers and cause mature Christians to raise their eyebrow at you.
It would be wise to avoid any discussion even remotely insulting and mocking scripture. You are treading on thin ice with God. Not wise.
Scripture is sound and it is the living word of God! God uses it to reveal truths to all His children on a daily basis!
What denomination are you?
It has been a long theological debate (decades before my time) as to whether the Bible IS the Word of God or whether the Bible CONTAINS the Word of God.
Technically, one could say that the Bible IS NOT the Word of God if there is anything in the Bible that directly states that it is NOT the Word of God. Oddly enough Paul provides such evidence:
But to the rest I, not the Lord, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her.(1 Corinthians 7:12 NKJV)
To the rest I say—I and not the Lord—that if any believer has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her.(1 Corinthians 7:12 NRSV)
Paul directly states that his council is from him and "not the Lord." If something is Not from the Lord, then it's not the Word of God. How could it be? Rather, it's the Word of Paul.
Now I'm sure there are other considerations and opinions and excuses and objections and rants and raves, but the above would lead one to conclude that the Bible contains the Word of God. Even Jesus seems to give testimony about this, since it is by Jesus that one is saved, not the scripture.
You search the Scriptures, for in them you think you have eternal life; and these are they which testify of Me.(John 5:39 NKJV)
"You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that testify on my behalf.(John 5:39 NRSV)
As one can read above, then, Jesus directly states that the scriptures (GRAPHE or Bible) testifies to Him - the Word of God (LOGOS).
So the Bible is not the Word of God, but rather is a testimony about the Word of God. It contains a testimony about the LOGOS(word) of God - Jesus.
And that testimony should be in our hearts rather than clutched to our hearts because of superstition in having a holy book.
You are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read by all men; clearly you are an epistle of Christ, ministered by us, written not with ink but by the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of flesh, that is, of the heart.(2 Corinthians 3:2-3 NKJV)
Of course there is more I could say, and I might do so later, but I think the above provides a good start for explaining my views.
God bless,
Rhema
Lol , you make me laugh as if God is going to be offended by something so petty.
The things that God gets offended on are people who say that they are followers of his son, and yet do nothing to follow his son.
They constantly talk against people who do follow his son over stuff that is so ridiculously little, and yet paint them as being Heretics.
Another thing that really offends God is people who also claim to be followers of Jesus his son. And yet have no value to human life committing abortions willy-nilly as if the creation of God means nothing. As if God's Own work with creation of human beings has no value to it, or those who feel they can take the life of these humans these created children of God. Those are the ones that offend God.
There are many people in the world that may come across as those who offend God, but they don't know God yet and do harm to others. Like human traffickers and so on. It isn't that they are ignorant people it's rather that they do stupid things.
The greater offense comes from those who claim to be Christian but do not know what it means to be Christian
In the same way you can be a Jew with the blood of Abraham in your viens, the "true Jew" is what God seeks, in the heart.The Bible is NOT Jesus who is the Word of God. The Word of God singular (Jesus) speaks the words of God plural.
The Bible contains the words of God.
It has been a long theological debate (decades before my time) as to whether the Bible IS the Word of God or whether the Bible CONTAINS the Word of God.
Technically, one could say that the Bible IS NOT the Word of God if there is anything in the Bible that directly states that it is NOT the Word of God. Oddly enough Paul provides such evidence:
But to the rest I, not the Lord, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her.(1 Corinthians 7:12 NKJV)
To the rest I say—I and not the Lord—that if any believer has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her.(1 Corinthians 7:12 NRSV)
Paul directly states that his council is from him and "not the Lord." If something is Not from the Lord, then it's not the Word of God. How could it be? Rather, it's the Word of Paul.
Now I'm sure there are other considerations and opinions and excuses and objections and rants and raves, but the above would lead one to conclude that the Bible contains the Word of God. Even Jesus seems to give testimony about this, since it is by Jesus that one is saved, not the scripture.
You search the Scriptures, for in them you think you have eternal life; and these are they which testify of Me.(John 5:39 NKJV)
"You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that testify on my behalf.(John 5:39 NRSV)
As one can read above, then, Jesus directly states that the scriptures (GRAPHE or Bible) testifies to Him - the Word of God (LOGOS).
So the Bible is not the Word of God, but rather is a testimony about the Word of God. It contains a testimony about the LOGOS(word) of God - Jesus.
And that testimony should be in our hearts rather than clutched to our hearts because of superstition in having a holy book.
You are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read by all men; clearly you are an epistle of Christ, ministered by us, written not with ink but by the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of flesh, that is, of the heart.(2 Corinthians 3:2-3 NKJV)
Of course there is more I could say, and I might do so later, but I think the above provides a good start for explaining my views.
God bless,
Rhema
Is there anything we Christians will not argue about?! No wonder it is said that Christianity is a dying religion!
Jesus said......
John 5:39 You search and investigate and pore over the Scriptures diligently, because you suppose and trust that you have eternal life through them. And these [very Scriptures] testify about Me! (AMP)
Jesus Christ is the one and only (singular) Word of God. Scriptures that were God-breathed point to the one and only true Word of God who is Jesus Christ himself. All scriptures testify, and point to Jesus Christ who is called the Word of God.