What does Luke 9:45 mean by the disciples not ‘grasping’ the meaning of Jesus’ words?

[Br. Bear]

Greetings,

The lack of understanding in the linguistically famine among Trinitarians

You may find such famine is everywhere but we ought to be careful because while you and i and any other might think we have a good handle on something linguistic, you will find that many extremely educated men still, to this day, dig deeply into putting it all together, and even more so in this present age where so many new and 'modern' words and terms and accepted terminologies arise.
There are many who fancy themselves to be a cut above the rest with Biblical material and the silly thing about those who do so using the English tongue, often forget that the whole language is nothing like the original two or three that makes up the Bible as we have it.
Linguistics is also a bit more than words. Much needs to be added to what a people understand with words used, how they are and why, also.
Suggesting any English Bible is the ants pants of Scripture is rather vain. We need the Lord in all things, including communicating with one another. Thankfully, the Lord has provided a way for that.
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God ‘IS’... that is why his name is ‘YHWH’, which means, ‘I am’... from ‘I will always be who I Am’ - ‘I am Almighty God / I never change!!’

Could you please provide full proof of this? If not, please add that 'I think' or 'from what i understand' or something similar. It is rather a bold statement and needs some verification if it is to remain.


Bless you ....><>

 

[JustAskin]

Greetings,

could you please take a little time to watch your manners?

Grasp, as you put it, can be both a doing and a done thing. For instance, your quoted post is not really in tune with righteous fellowship and further posts that be similar, if indeed there are any, could be removed and you might find yourself upset by that, if you grasp my meaning.

Post in Peace, not attitude, please


Bless you ....><>

Br.Bear, I ‘disguises’ my question so that there would be no pre-thought on the word.

If I had started off telling everyone that I was referring to (going to refer to) then their hackles would be up and their pre-trinitarian ideology would have kicked in... that WOULD be a biased

 

[JustAskin]

Greetings,


You may find such famine is everywhere but we ought to be careful because while you and i and any other might think we have a good handle on something linguistic, you will find that many extremely educated men still, to this day, dig deeply into putting it all together, and even more so in this present age where so many new and 'modern' words and terms and accepted terminologies arise.
There are many who fancy themselves to be a cut above the rest with Biblical material and the silly thing about those who do so using the English tongue, often forget that the whole language is nothing like the original two or three that makes up the Bible as we have it.
Linguistics is also a bit more than words. Much needs to be added to what a people understand with words used, how they are and why, also.
Suggesting any English Bible is the ants pants of Scripture is rather vain. We need the Lord in all things, including communicating with one another. Thankfully, the Lord has provided a way for that.
-------------------------------



Could you please provide full proof of this? If not, please add that 'I think' or 'from what i understand' or something similar. It is rather a bold statement and needs some verification if it is to remain.


Bless you ....><>

Br.Bear, I think you and I know exactly what ‘YHWH’ means. It is written as a testament to generations eternal. Almighty God, himself, defined himself and summarised it in the most beautiful and wonderous name ever: ‘YHWH’, meaning: ‘I am’.

Our Diety, our only true God, the Father, when asked what his name is by his favoured nation, stated to Moses:

• "I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.'"

Of course, this was in the Hebrew language. Hebrew names, we know, have a tendency to describe the person to whom they are attached; hence Abram is changed BY GOD to Abraham to reflect his new purpose. Also like Sarai was changed BY GOD to Sarah for her new role, Jacob was changed by God to Israel, and Simon was changed BY JESUS to CEPHAS (which we translate as ‘Peter’. It can be questioned whether anything of meaning in the Greek is lost by the translation)

And so, we know that ‘Jesus’ is a mistranslation of ‘Joshua’ (in Hebrew) and most certainly has the same meaning: ‘He who will save his people’... and indeed Joshua led the Israelites out of the wilderness and into the promised land... just as Jesus will lead the true believers out of the spiritual wilderness and into the new world of glory under his reign.

So you ask me to definitively show that ‘YHWH’ mean, ‘He who does not change’...
To start, I would ask you what makes you think it does not mean as I said? Certainly, Almighty God is ULTIMATE... there is none greater nor equal to him. God (for short) is ALL... so can he change to GREATER?

No! He is hitting the ceiling of greatness.

Can God be less?

NO! If God could be less then he would be lacking... and God lacks for nothing... therefore, he cannot be less!!

And can God be ‘other’?

No. For God to be ‘other’ means he is not complete in himself...

So, we can conclude that ‘God is IMMUTABLE’... ‘Cannot Change’:

• ‘I am what I am’ and therefore the best name to describe me is:
• ‘I AM’... I just am!

I hate going off-scriptures, but Wikipedia states this (ignore if you like!):

• The Immutability of God is an attribute that "God is unchanging in his character, will, and covenant promises." God's immutability defines all God's other attributes: God is immutably wise, merciful, good, and gracious. ... An infinite and changing God is inconceivable; indeed, it is a contradiction in definition.”

Malachi 3:6 states:

• "For I, the LORD, do not change; therefore you, O sons of Jacob, are not consumed.” (‘LORD’ is a deliberately confusing retranslation of ‘YHWH’)

And others:

• “The counsel of the LORD stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation.” (Psalm 33:11)
• “for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable.” (Romans 11:29)
• “In the same way God, desiring even more to show to the heirs of the promise the unchangeableness of His purpose, interposed with an oath,(Hebrews 6:17)
• “Every good thing given and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow.” (James 1:17)
• “He is the Rock, his works are perfect, and all his ways are just. A faithful God who does no wrong, upright and just is he.” (Deut 32:4)

These, and other verses, are testament to the truth and righteousness of an immutable God. His word is his bond:

• “... [the] word that goes out from my mouth [...] will not return to me empty, but will accomplish what I desire and achieve the purpose for which I sent it.” (Edited for easier reading!)

And, indeed, if Almighty God were not immutable, there could be no stability of righteousness and truth.

Br.Bear, I hope this satisfies your request because I can find nothing further to add at this time to prove that Almighty God:

• ‘Is, was, and always will be’: ‘YHWH’: ‘I Am’

 

[JustAskin]

The question of the word, and the meaning of the word, ‘Grasp’, obviously in relation to scriptures (this is a Christian website), is illustrated by its usage.

Phil 2:6 states that although Jesus was in the form of God, he did not GRASP for EQUALITY with God... (my reading).

However, a trinitarian reading stares that though Jesus WAS EQUAL TO GOD he did not think that GRASPING to that equality with God was worthwhile...

And then we both agree that.., INSTEAD, Jesus ‘emptied himself’ and became like mankind and allowed himself to be subjected to the pangs of mankind - even unto death.

So which is right.., BOTH CANNOT BE right!!

Was Jesus EQUAL to GOD?

I say, NO! Almighty God said that ‘Beside me there is no [other] GOD.

How can that be true if Jesus was [another] God BESIDE GOD.

Please don’t say they were both the same God... that is not what is written in the scriptures. Being in the FORM of something DOES NOT EQUATE to BEING THAT THING.

Being EQUAL to God cannot mean EQUAL to God BECAUSE there is NOTHING (NO ONE) that CAN BE equal to ALMIGHTY GOD... how??? How???

There cannot be two ultimates, two almighties.... yet trinity tries to claim that JESUS BECAME EQUAL TO GOD.... which means that ALMIGHTY GOD LIED.

Stephen, bring stoned by a crowd, saw in vision Heaven open.., and he saw:

• Almighty God seated on his throne
• Jesus STANDING next to him
• (No third person... that kills trinity straight away!)

The one seated (See book of Revelation also) is ALMIGHTY GOD who dwells in impenetrable light.

The one(s) STANDING are NOT ALMIGHTY.

Indeed, it is so in positions of power. A judge is SEATED while the contenders STAND.

Here is the truth:
Jesus was ‘FILLED’ with the Holy Spirit OF GOD. Do we ever hear of them Father being filled with the power of God?’ ... egg not?

The Father... was pleased that Jesus should be filled with the FULLNESS OF THE SPIRIT.

What was Jesus BEFORE he was filled with the fullness of the Spirit?
Hint: Jesus did no miracles before he was baptised...

When was the Father pleased ... AT THE BAPTISM OF JESUS:

• ‘This is my son in whom I am well pleased’
• ‘Here is my SERVANT whom I have chosen, my beloved in whom I am well pleased. He will bring justice to the nations!’ (paraphrased)

Why does Almighty God call Jesus, ‘My SERVANT’, if Jesus IS GOD? God is no one’s SERVANT.

No! Jesus, being filled with the Holy Spirit, was LED INTO THE WILDERNESS to be TEMPTED by Satan.

Has anyone heard of ALMIGHTY GOD being TEMPTED by Satan... indeed, how can that be... to be ‘tempted’ means desiring to obtain or do something that you have not already gotten or something you cannot already do? Almighty God is always the holder of all things and can do all things (obviously things that are righteous because God can fight no wrong!)

No, God cannot he tempted. So Jesus being tempted by Satan to see if Jesus would MISUSE HIS NEWLY GAINED POWERS.

Check out the three temptations... what are they illustrating?

No, ‘though Jesus has the POWER OF GOD (in the Form of God) he did not try to misuse his powers and GRAB HOLD OF EQUALITY WITH GOD.

Read the previous verse in Phil 2 to see that the Apostles are teaching each other to NOT ABUSE THE POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT invested IN THEM at Pentecost, just as Jesus, though having greater powers by his baptism at the river Jordan, did not exploit his powers but INSTEAD, humbled himself.

So, Jesus did not GRASP FOR EQUALITY WITH GOD... he was not EQUAL to God but bring given the power of such, he did not TEACH OUT TO SIEZE EQUALITY WITH GOD.