I've noticed everytime the Bible disagrees with your theology...the Bibe is wrong.
This is why I find it difficult to discuss things with you.
I didn't say the Bible was wrong. I said it was mistranslated. The translators are wrong. I posted the NETS Septuagint. Why didn't the translators translate olam as everlasting if that's what it means? The NETS is some of the most recent scholarship. The KJV, while I like it, was done with much more limited scholarship. Not to mention that the KVJ contains the Masoretic text which is from around 800 Ad. The Septuagint is much older and is what Jesus and the apostles quoted from. So, why didn't they translate olam as everlasting? Maybe it's because the saw these passages.
KJV Exodus 40:15 And thou shalt anoint them, as thou didst anoint their father, that they may minister unto me in the priest's office: for their anointing shall surely be an
everlasting priesthood throughout their generations. (Exod. 40:15 KJV)
Numbers 25:13 And he shall have it, and his seed after him, even the covenant of an
everlasting priesthood; because he was zealous for his God, and made an atonement for the children of Israel. (Num. 25:13 KJV)
Is the priesthood of Aaron everlasting?
11
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron? 12 For
the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law. 13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar. 14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood. 15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after (Heb. 7:1 KJV)
According to Paul, the priesthood of Aaron came to an end. If it came to an end, how is it everlasting? It seems we have two options, either Paul is wrong or the translators are wrong.
19 All the vessels of the
tabernacle in all the service thereof, and all the pins thereof, and all the pins of the court, shall be of brass.
20 And thou shalt command the children of Israel, that they bring thee pure oil olive beaten for the light, to cause the lamp to burn always.
21 In the
tabernacle of the congregation without the vail, which is before the testimony, Aaron and his sons shall order it from evening to morning before the LORD: it shall be
a statute for ever unto their generations on the behalf of the children of Israel.
(Exod. 27:19-21 KJV)
Was this statute forever? Were they still doing it after the tabernacle was gone? Obviously not. It ended. Again, something the translators said was eternal ended.
We find this all over Scripture.
The translations are all wrong, you are right. Of course they are.
I've just given you a few passages. We can do the same with the New Testament.
My friend, you should know I don't just throw out random stuff. If you want to discuss things why not research what I say before making comments like this?
Look up Theological Bias. Here's a statement from a senior translator of the NASB. The bolding is mine.
"Theological bias has a negative connotation as something to be avoided, and in general, I think it is. But
I do not think it would be realistic to argue that Bible translation can be done without theological bias. It is not simply a matter of whether the translator has a theological agenda or not; there are passages in which all the choices of wording necessarily reflect theological positions. Furthermore, if we are going to be completely objective, even orthodoxy is a bias.
That is, it is by definition an opinion that inclines or prejudices the translator toward a particular choice of wording when his choices all have theological implications."
DR. DON WILKINS: B.A. UC Irvine, M.Div. Talbot Seminary, Th.M. Talbot Seminary, M.A. UCLA, Ph.D. UCLA. He has worked with The Lockman Foundation (TLF) as a senior translator since 1992 on the NASB.
So, if theological bias inclines the translator to choose certain words. What words do you suppose Trinitarian translators will choose when it speaks of Jesus and olam? I think it's pretty obvious. They're not going to say Jesus is eternal but it's only for a while. They're going to choose the wording that they believe is correct and that belief is what you see in their translations. All translators do it. It's like the author said, you can't avoid it.