The Unprofitable Servant
Member
- Joined
- Dec 19, 2018
- Messages
- 25
@Christ4Ever ,
Truly I do appreciate your consciousness of others (your ref. to Romans 14) to ensure that they do not stumble (that is a very good spirit to have!) but it is ultimately my hope to bring to light that it is not merely food for the body in which we are discussing, or to simply have unity for the sake of unity, but more specifically if it is the correct "Bread of Life" that we would break in unity. Enter John 6:35-40 .
I do not need to assume that you shared something wrong because of "personal interpretation"; but because you provided false means of interpreting the passage:
Also...
Again, that is NOT what was used in Matthew 23:9 and is disingenuous to suggest it ONLY means referring to someone as "giver of life" (though I do agree with you in not viewing our earthly "father" in this manner as well. e.g "giver of life").
It is πατέρα (patera), not κύριος (kyrios) as you have suggested.
So, we can see within the word usage, and specifically its definition, more clearly what Jesus is commanding. Do not call [καλέσητε (kalesēte) Strong's Greek 2564: (a) I call, summon, invite, (b) I call, name. Akin to the base of keleuo; to 'call'] (or be called) by exalting titles by or to any person (as the correct word and definition explains) because those titles are exclusively for God.
If not by definition, I will try to illustrate this through some instances throughout Jesus' ministry.
Firstly, in Luke 2 is the story of the boy Jesus that was mistakenly left in Jerusalem. More specifically interesting is Luke 2:48-49 . A separation between father (πατήρ/patēr) and Father’s (Πατρός/Patros = the possesive of patera).
Secondly, the wedding at Cana in Galilee in John 2 when Jesus' turned the water into wine? How did Jesus respond to Mary (His mother or métér (μήτηρ) when she pleaded for him to intervene?
" Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee?" - John 2:4
Jesus did the same thing in John 19:26. Why did He say these things (or, lack thereof)? Because it went hand in hand with what He taught in Matthew 23:8-10 so that WE, as followers of Jesus, do not become hypocrites like the religious leaders of Jesus' day just as he was explaining in the verse before Matthew 23:1-7. (CONTEXT!)
This hypocrisy is still going on to this day that Jesus warned us about in Luke 12:1-3 and expanded on just how poisonous it is after He commanded His followers to not do the same! Matthew 23:13-39
You can try an experiment to see if what Jesus said is true. Call every person you know or meet by their first name only and see how they react. I guarantee you it will be a shocking and eye opening find.
We must be very careful to not shut out God and receive new truth from Him. Jesus addressed this with His run ins with the Pharisees and Scribes in both John 9:39-41 and Matthew 15:13-14.
The connection there is between Caesars' and Gods' Kingdom to determine who we give our devotion to. It can be summed up with this question: "What belongs to God?" (Answer: Everything!) "So what is left for Caesar?" (Answer: Nothing). Jesus expanded on this in Matthew 17:24-27 saying, "From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own children or from others?”
I also see the connection of Jesus not being a respecter/partial to any person in Luke 20:21. Even the scribes and chief priests recognized this.
If you choose to keep using titles like sir, mister/misses, doctor, most holy reverend, etc when Jesus said not to you have to ask who it really offends. That is between you and God. Jesus did say what to do when we find something offending us in Mark 9:42-50. Cut it off and stop doing it! If you do decide to do that and teach others to do the same is up to you.
In peace and Love
Truly I do appreciate your consciousness of others (your ref. to Romans 14) to ensure that they do not stumble (that is a very good spirit to have!) but it is ultimately my hope to bring to light that it is not merely food for the body in which we are discussing, or to simply have unity for the sake of unity, but more specifically if it is the correct "Bread of Life" that we would break in unity. Enter John 6:35-40 .
Your assumption that I am clearly wrong, in seeking context to what Scripture provides to us, because of how you interpret this part of Scripture,
I do not need to assume that you shared something wrong because of "personal interpretation"; but because you provided false means of interpreting the passage:
It would be in reality the word kyrios, but in the English language that is not the case, even though the translators used that word to signify that Greek word.
Also...
Do you realize that what Jesus is saying in this verse is that you should not call your earthly "father", "Father"? Meaning, don't make out your earthly father to be your heavenly Father. The world does this readily, in the belief that the earthly father is the one who gives life! We, of course know better. Now, understanding that it had nothing to do with the word itself, but the connotation placed upon the word to signify that which only belongs to our Heavenly Father and not to our earthly father.
Again, that is NOT what was used in Matthew 23:9 and is disingenuous to suggest it ONLY means referring to someone as "giver of life" (though I do agree with you in not viewing our earthly "father" in this manner as well. e.g "giver of life").
It is πατέρα (patera), not κύριος (kyrios) as you have suggested.
So, we can see within the word usage, and specifically its definition, more clearly what Jesus is commanding. Do not call [καλέσητε (kalesēte) Strong's Greek 2564: (a) I call, summon, invite, (b) I call, name. Akin to the base of keleuo; to 'call'] (or be called) by exalting titles by or to any person (as the correct word and definition explains) because those titles are exclusively for God.
If not by definition, I will try to illustrate this through some instances throughout Jesus' ministry.
Firstly, in Luke 2 is the story of the boy Jesus that was mistakenly left in Jerusalem. More specifically interesting is Luke 2:48-49 . A separation between father (πατήρ/patēr) and Father’s (Πατρός/Patros = the possesive of patera).
Secondly, the wedding at Cana in Galilee in John 2 when Jesus' turned the water into wine? How did Jesus respond to Mary (His mother or métér (μήτηρ) when she pleaded for him to intervene?
" Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee?" - John 2:4
Jesus did the same thing in John 19:26. Why did He say these things (or, lack thereof)? Because it went hand in hand with what He taught in Matthew 23:8-10 so that WE, as followers of Jesus, do not become hypocrites like the religious leaders of Jesus' day just as he was explaining in the verse before Matthew 23:1-7. (CONTEXT!)
This hypocrisy is still going on to this day that Jesus warned us about in Luke 12:1-3 and expanded on just how poisonous it is after He commanded His followers to not do the same! Matthew 23:13-39
You can try an experiment to see if what Jesus said is true. Call every person you know or meet by their first name only and see how they react. I guarantee you it will be a shocking and eye opening find.
If the Holy Spirit had not led me to see this, I don't believe any more time delving into Scripture would have helped, in what I now can see clearly. People who live in the country might call it "Not seeing the forest for the trees".
We must be very careful to not shut out God and receive new truth from Him. Jesus addressed this with His run ins with the Pharisees and Scribes in both John 9:39-41 and Matthew 15:13-14.
That being said, you can see that Matthew 23:9 goes hand in hand with Luke 20:25 And he said unto them, Render therefore unto Caesar the things which be Caesar's, and unto God the things which be God's. I realize that on the face value of what this states, that Jesus was using money coined by the Romans to make His point. However, looking closely at the wording one sees, that He is attempting to show them that there is a difference between what belongs to man, to what belongs to God and that they should not be mixed/confused.
The connection there is between Caesars' and Gods' Kingdom to determine who we give our devotion to. It can be summed up with this question: "What belongs to God?" (Answer: Everything!) "So what is left for Caesar?" (Answer: Nothing). Jesus expanded on this in Matthew 17:24-27 saying, "From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own children or from others?”
I also see the connection of Jesus not being a respecter/partial to any person in Luke 20:21. Even the scribes and chief priests recognized this.
If my usage of certain words offend you then I'll not use them brother. However, I am also a Moderator in Talk Jesus and so saying have responsibilities that go beyond what I would have no issue complying with if it were to prevent you from being pained. This is not something I can or will force upon others. Nor, should you expect it of me. All I ask is that you have compassion to others that God has also chosen to be His.
If you choose to keep using titles like sir, mister/misses, doctor, most holy reverend, etc when Jesus said not to you have to ask who it really offends. That is between you and God. Jesus did say what to do when we find something offending us in Mark 9:42-50. Cut it off and stop doing it! If you do decide to do that and teach others to do the same is up to you.
In peace and Love