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Add bookmark Yesterday at 12:24 PM #1
I believe that Matthew 24 is written only to the Jew for the Jew to be prepared in the time of Jacob's distress (Daniels 70th week).
I agree that God is not a God of confusion. What is your problem?
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Hello @JerryfromMass,@JerryfromMass said (OP)
Pretribbers claim Matthew 24 is written only to the Jew for the Jew to be prepared in the time of Jacob's distress (Daniels 70th week). They argue that it doesn't pertain to the ekklesia, but is exclusive to the Jew because Jesus's audience was strictly Jewish and Jesus's eartly ministry was to and for the Jew. But, they speak in circles when asked why John 3, or John 14, while preached during Jesus's earthly ministry exclusively to the Jews, is for the ekklesia.
Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are witnesses to the goyim nations, even though they are records of Jesus's earthly ministry. Each of MML&J pertain directly to the ekklesia by virtue of God's preordained plan to provoke Israel to reach the goyim nations with the LIGHT of SALVATION.
Thoughts?
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@JerryfromMass said (Reply #3)
Matthew 24 thru Matthew 25. Best if you read each chapter and ask yourself: is Jesus speaking of the same cosmic disturbances prophesied in Joel 2, Isaiah 13, Revelation, and HIS return, that is: the same parousia, as well as the same warnings against deception, the same temple desolation, the same lawlessness, the same persecution cut short, and all the other parallels with, and mentioned by Paul in, 1 and 2 Thessalonians, as well as the parallels mentioned by John in Revelation, i.e., false Christ, wars, famine, martyrdom, great tribulation, celestial disturbances, the Lord's wrath.
All of these parallels are given to each of the authors of each of the separate writings by inspiration of one God. Our God is not a god of confusion; God would not say to one apostle, for example: that parousia means one thing, and then say to another apostle that parousia means somethong altogether different. Same goes fot all of the parallels: each means the same thing and speaks to the same event.
I believe that Matthew 24 is written only to the Jew for the Jew to be prepared in the time of Jacob's distress (Daniels 70th week).
I agree that God is not a God of confusion. What is your problem?
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris