Well Jesus walked on water, so that idiom doesn't really bother me. If you have any specific concerns, please let me know so that I may address them and clarify any confusion that I may have caused.
And yet I did not say that. So I will express concern that my words went in one ear and came out ... differently. Allow me to quote -
To acknowledge that contradictions exist in the Bible, is just not the same thing as saying the Bible is contradictory. There is at least one order of magnitude in difference. But I had said that I wouldn't speak any further to this issue in this thread, so if you wish to reply, please... I ask that you start a thread on this topic (and let me know).
And just where had I said, "
full of textual errors"? You mean the
fact that we know there are more copiest errors in the corpus (collection) of NT manuscripts than there are words in the NT? That's a truth. And we, as followers of Christ, do a disservice to the world to deny this. ( And I do believe I had spoken to the question of whether these manuscript errors are substantive or not.)
Every Christian should read this book - and deal with the facts (not the conclusions) but the facts presented there in -
(Not promoting Amazon, since one can find copies online for about five bucks elsewhere. Or visit you local library.)
Where have I denied the words of the Holy One? And yet how could Job mean the Bible since it hadn't yet been written? To be open and honest, I happen to agree with the Jews who understand that the book of Job is a religious essay (theological literature) and not history. Whichever it may be, any conclusion is an interpretation.
And you just quoted one. The actual texts states - "as they do the
remaining scriptures" (
λοιπας -
LINK to Liddell Scott Lexicon). But I'm not talking about contradictions that are the result of translation artifacts, I speak about contradictions that are found within the initial languages themselves.
Occasionally?? I am directly stating that one must learn the language in order to deal with serious problems. Allow me to quote:
It's a fact that Martin Luther treated scripture deceitfully, and much of the doctrine of the Reformation is based upon this deceit.
Well Paul would get a six (possibly five) for his ramblings in the book of Romans. It was not well written. And yes, much of the infighting about what various scripture verses mean stems directly from the fact that they could have been written better. Allow me to give an example:
And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God. And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth: And blessed be the most high God, which hath delivered thine enemies into thy hand. And he gave him tithes of all. And the king of Sodom said unto Abram, Give me the persons, and take the goods to thyself.
(Genesis 14:18-21 KJV)
Read the above passage very carefully... and if you need to, please spend the time to delve into the Hebrew, because I have one question for you. Look at the text that states, "And he gave him tithes of all." That's all you have - pronouns, "he" gave "him"... So who gave whom "tithes of all" ?? Now what happens when you understand the Hebrew words mean "He Awarded him a tenth of all" ?? Again, I will Not address this any further
in this thread. If you're curious (trust me, you likely have the wrong answer), I'd be happy to discuss this later in its own thread.
I don't care what language it is written in, I care about what language it was
authored in (and it was not authored in Latin). But for the most part, though, I agree that the common Christian is unable to spend the time necessary to learn how to read the New Testament texts directly, and so all of them (and I must include you in this) are at the mercies of the translators' competency (and bias). As a teenager, this struck me as folly, to be helpless against bad translation decisions - especially about something as important as the New Testament. And I have not found many (translators) to be all that competent.
So yes, it is a limitation to you, and I applaud that you are cognizant of that fact. But we press on, and learn as we go, which is why I recommended this interlinear. There are maybe three or four glosses I disagree with. (Not much.)
Who cares?
That's not the purpose of translation. And you know that. The purpose of translation is to provide an accurate understanding of the meaning intended by the author who has written in another language. We don't invent new meanings, and we don't treat the writings deceitfully in order to promote a specific theological agenda. I don't have an agenda, unlike most denominationally paid for translations. I find it rather astonishing that most Christians don't comprehend that the King James Version is a Catholic Bible.
Well then we have something in common. (And I will hold you to that.)
I think you mean verse 35, not 36.
Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
(Matthew 24:35 KJV)
And yet, you would think it sacrilegious for me to ask you, "What do you mean by
my words ??"
I'm fairly confident that you would define this as "The Bible" and yet when Jesus said this, the New Testament hadn't even been written, let alone existing as a canon compiled by the Roman Catholic Church - the one you use.
( I am proud to be condemned as a "Red Letter" Christian.)
And yet, you would think it sacrilegious for me to ask you, "What did the author mean by
The words of the Lord ??" Because he certainly didn't mean the Bible.
There is more that should be discussed on this matter, but from experience, I doubt that you would wish to continue in such a discussion at any length. But maybe I'm wrong.
Believe me, there
are contradictions in the Bible. (See how that works?) The real question is whether you can deal with this fact in an open and honest manner.
No.
You call it the Word of God because you were told that by other people who are incompetent (perhaps I should say ill-informed). But within the New Testament texts, one cannot find that the New Testament texts are called the Word of God.
Because you are limited by English, I'm rather sure that you haven't yet learned that there are TWO Word of God(s) spoken of in the New Testament, both of which are defined in the New Testament - with neither definition meaning "The Bible." And if you think something to be the Word of God, when in truth something else is the Word of God, how can one possibly avoid confusion? (Get the dang Interlinear, brother. I'll buy it for you.)
Again, this
must be dealt with in a different thread, as I don't wish to incur the wrath of Br Bear any further. ( I feel I"m teetering on the edge as it is.)
And just where does it say this? ( I'm curious to know where you got that idea from.)
And I'm hoping that your reply here is just an ill-thought out comment, spout first - think later, because I never described myself as a craftsman with inadequate tools. I'm not sure whether you misread what I wrote, or miswrote what you meant, but truly, I strongly encourage you to re-read what I posted.
I can't, because I'm reading the Greek text directly. Both passages in James use the word
G2041 ἔργον - which is the exact same word as found in Ephesians 2:9.
Changing the definitions of words to promote a theological agenda is treating what is written deceitfully. (And that aint' sacrosanct.)
And right back at ya,
Rhema
PS: Now please, though, understand that it is not my intention to disrespect what you beleve, but I ask of you the same thing. It would be wonderful over the next few months to deal with some of the issues we've discussed in this thread.
PPS: I hadn't quoted James to speak to the OP, but rather as a referent to the fact that James and Paul disagreed with one another, even over soteriology, to the point where James set Paul up to be deported to Rome. But again, please, I just can't depart anymore from the OP.
PPPS: Don't confuse competence and confidence with arrogance.