Dear Butch5
Sorry again for being gone for so long. Life again intrudes in ways that are not always convenient for communication, at least a rapid fire response. Then again who needs quick back and forth.
Hi Nick, no worries. it's all good'
It is not logical to the finite mind.
For "who has known the mind of the LORD that he may instruct Him?" But we have the mind of Christ. (
1 Corinthians 2:16). Chapter 2 makes for an interesting and fruitful read in this area especially towards the last verses. Prayerfully think, you already believe, I am assuming by your inclusion above, that one person consists of two other persons i.e. Father, Son. Is it such a jump to go to three when you also believe in a hierarchy of existence of the Godhead though you may not call it as such?
I've heard this argument many times, it's not logical to the finite mind. I agree. I would submit it's not logical to any mind. There are two problems with this argument. One is that the doctrine was created by a finite mind. There is nothing in the Scriptures that speaks of a trinity or of one God in three persons. The question is, where did it come from? It came from men, with finite minds, trying to understand what the Bible says. The understanding they came to is illogical. I don't understand why people accept it. I know at the time it was conceived many people were illiterate and the Catholic church had a strangle hold on the Scriptures. They basically said, believe it or burn in hell for eternity. It was about power and control. We see that in the Athanasian Creed where they said, if you don't believe this you can't saved. The funny thing is, those who came before them didn't believe it. Were they all lost? Jesus and the apostles didn't believe it. Were they lost too?
The second problem with this argument is that if it's beyond comprehension we have no way to know if it's true or not. We simply have to believe it, "just because". We can't even say we blindly believe it because it's what the bible says, because the Bible doesn't say it. We don't even find this idea of three, coequal, coeternal, persons until the 5th century. If this was something one had to believe in order to be saved, wouldn't we expect Jesus and the apostles to be talking about this all through the Gospels?
Let me clarify, I don't believe that one person can consist of two persons. One person is one person. I believe what the apostle Paul said to the Corinthians, "to us there is one God, the Father.' The Son is referred to as God in a few places. That doesn't mean He is the same being as the Father. They are separate beings. The Father brought forth the Son. When a woman brings forth a child that child is a separate entity. When the Father brought forth the Son the Son was a separate entity. Each one, one person, one being. So, we have two beings or persons, the Father and the Son.
Notice when the Son is referred to as God, in Psalm 45:6 and Heb 1:8, it is in reference to a kingdom. A god is a ruler. A ruler has a specific domain. Even the pagan gods were, in the peoples eyes, rulers over certain domains. They had the sun god, the god of hades, they had gods of fertility, etc. They all had a domain. Well, the Son will rule and have a domain, thus in reference to that kingdom He is referred to as God. We can see from this usage in Scripture that the word God is a title. It's used of the one true God and it's used of pagan Gods. That the word god is used in different senses can also be seen from the apostle John.
18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
The Holy Bible: King James Version, Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version. (Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 2009), Jn 1:18.
Here John says no one has seen God at any time. This statement explicitly excludes the Son of God, Jesus. He's been seen. So, if He is God as referenced in the Scriptures, then either John is wrong or the word God is used in different sense.
Paul also addresses this subject.
13 I give thee charge in the sight of God, who quickeneth all things, and before Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate witnessed a good confession; 14 That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our
Lord Jesus Christ: 15 Which in his times he shall shew,
who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; 16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
The Holy Bible: King James Version, Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version. (Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 2009), 1 Ti 6:13–16.
Paul, like John, says no man has seen this God. Paul even adds that no man can see this God. These two statements explicitly exclude the Son of God. The Son, Jesus, simply cannot be this God that John and Paul are speaking of.
When you see the word "God" not as a name but a "Title" it makes perfect sense. It does not require us to understand perfectly the Godhead because to understand God will require an Eternity. An eternity that we have through Jesus. Time enough to see and understand the logic in context with a hierarchy and how each works in perfect agreement/harmony with the other. That is why I find it less logical when you are bouncing the Holy Spirit from being the power of God to being God the Father Himself, depending on the instance in question noted in Scripture.
But, we're not trying to understand God. We're trying to understand a doctrine that men have conceived.
I'm not changing the spirit from power to God. What I'm trying to show is that the word "spirit" is a figure of speech use of the Father. If we say God did something by His power, who did it? God did it. His power isn't a separate entity. The Scriptures speak of God doing things by His right hand. That's not saying that God is a right hand. Saying God did something by His power is the same as saying God did something by His spirit. It's not that some different entity did it. God did it. Consider Luke 1.
26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth, 27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin’s name was Mary. 28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. 29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be. 30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God. 31 And, behold,
thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. 32 He shall be great, and
shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: 33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her,
The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and
the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee
shall be called the Son of God.
The Holy Bible: King James Version, Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version. (Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 2009), Lk 1:26–35.
Notice in this passage the child that Mary would birth is to be called the Son of the Highest. That's the Father. But notice how it's done. The Holy Breath would come upon her. Think back to Genesis 2:7 and the Breath of God that gave life to Adam. Here we have the Breath of God giving life to His Son. When he's talking about the Holy Breath, he calls it the power of the Highest. Again, that's the Father. Then he says that child would be called the Son of God. The Spirit here isn't a third entity. If that was the case, then the Spirit would be the Father of the Son. The Son would be the Son of the Spirit, not the Son of the Highest. Who produced the child in Mary? It was the Father. He did it via the Holy Breath or Spirit.
I ask about who resides in us as a Temple, because it is God (
1 Corinthians 3:16). Yes? I guess it make sense since we are the Temple of God, even though later on you will find it also called the Temple of the Holy Spirit as you mentioned also (
1 Corinthians 6:19) which is actually more to the point we are discussing. This is where it might be easier for logic to see since as you already see God in the two persons, you were to see God as a title that includes in the hierarchy the Holy Spirit as the third person and so God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 29:18 will then make sense.
We can see that if we bring it to the text. The question is, have we derived it from the text. Again, how can such a thing be and not be mentioned by Jesus or the apostles. We've been programed to see that.
The Spirit of God resides in us, and so God resides in us. He also gives us power, distributes gifts, guides us, teaches us, is grieved by us and so much more as well does He. Clearly this speaks of sentience. The Spirit of God is the Holy Spirit and the third person of the Trinity/Godhead.
I hope this explains my belief of the Holy Spirit in a way that is understandable. I am sorry that my response was not quicker as we are more accustomed to in this day, but more like a letter in the mail from yonder days!
With the Love of Christ Jesus Brother.
YBIC
Nick
\o/
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It does speak of sentience. The Father is a sentient being. Breath is not sentient.