TULIP from the 2021 NRSV Updated Edition

[Charlie24]

Charlie, I will present how I reconcile Acts 13:48 with 1 Tim. 2:3-4 and 2 Pet. 3:9. Yet I suppose it is not the verses that need reconciling, but our understanding of them. The following is how I see it.

When you read the plain statement of Acts 13:48, and then 1 Tim. 2:3-4 & 2 Pet. 39, there obviously needs some reasonable way to reconcile the first verse with the next two, and I'll quote all three from the NRSVue.

"When the gentiles heard this, they were glad and praised the word of the Lord, and as many as had been destined for eternal life became believers." Act 13:48 NRSVue

"This is right and acceptable before God our Savior, who desires everyone to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth." 1Ti 2:3-4 NRSVue

"The Lord is not slow about his promise, as some think of slowness, but is patient with you, not wanting any to perish but all to come to repentance." 2Pe 3:9 NRSVue

We need the well known rule of interpretation: In comparing scripture, when there is a question between verses, the more clear verses take priority and explain the less clear. It is Acts 13:48 that is the most clear verse of the 3 passages. The word "destined" or "ordained" in the KJV, does not mean "disposed" and I know of no version that translates as "disposed" and if such a version could be found, it would be cherry picking to support a prior held belief and imposing on the text one's own thinking rather than accepting the text. Of course we have some on this thread who think they have more scholarship and can translate more accurately than respected translations such as the RV, ASV, RSV, NRSV, NRSVue, etc. "Do you see persons wise in their own eyes? There is more hope for fools than for them." (Prov 26:12 NRSV)

Acts 13:48 - Not all Gentiles, but only "as many as had been destined, ordained or appointed" became believers. This verse is quite clear to me. But I must understand the next two passages properly.

1Ti 2:3-4 - What is meant by "desires everyone", or ASV "all men". Go back to vs 1-2 and you see "all men" and then two categories; for kings, all in authority(KJV). The "all" and "everyone" is restricted to those in the context. There are to be prayers for all categories of men, every category of men. Examples in the NT of words "all" and "every" used in a manner NOT meaning all persons bar none: Lk 20:38 "all live unto him"KJV, but do ALL men live unto God?; Mk 11:32 "all men" saw John as a prophet, but someone cut his head off so it was not "all" without restriction; Lk 16:16 since the kingdom of God is preached are "all men" or is "everyone" trying to enter? 1 Cor. 11:3 is Christ the head of "every man" or is it to be understood "every Christian man"? The universal words "all" and "every man or one" must be seen in the context.

2 Pet. 3:9 - In v1 we see Peter is addressing the "beloved", not the world, scoffers and ungodly. So he is speaking to Christians. In v9 we see Peter writes "is patient with YOU", who are the beloved. I find the answer to this verse in the following:

"Or do you presume upon the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience? Do you not know that God's kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?" Rom 2:4 RSV

Peter is addressing believers, the "beloved" in 2 Pet. 3:9. HE is patient, not wanting any of his elect to perish but that ALL of the elect come to repentance. So the return of Jesus Christ will not happen until the very last person of His elect is brought into the fold. Remember, the "scoffers" in v3 are sneering at the delay in the return of Jesus Christ. I see in 2 Pet. 3:9 a solid assurance to the body of Christ that NOT ONE of his children will fail to enter the church, his kingdom before Christ returns.

The free-willers will pick and criticize how I understand 1 Tim. 2:3-4 and 2 Pet. 3:9 as I compare and reconcile them to Acts 13:48. BUT is my understanding more or less reasonable than how they try to evade the clear statement of Acts 13:48? Oh! Wait, I'm still looking to see their attempt to evade Acts 13:48. I see them quoting their favorite passages, but they evade those that are more clear on the Calvinist side, which must be the Biblical side until they can show how they can explain away verses such as Acts 13:48.

Charlie, indeed we see no need to be enemies. I regularly consult and respect the commentaries by the Arminians Joseph Benson and Adam Clarke and gain great insight and helps from them. I admit though, there are some types who post, with whom I have problems staying patient.

Dylan, I'm going to tell you something I haven't told anyone yet.

No one has been more outspoken against the Calvinists than myself for the past several years.

I was recently absent from TJ for a few weeks, on another site arguing with the Calvinists as I usually do.

In the middle of that argument I felt something was wrong, I paused in the argument for a while to understand what had just happened.

It was a come to Jesus moment for me, in no uncertain terms I realized "they are justified by faith just as you are, be careful how you walk."

I've had to make adjustments in my approach to the Calvinists, believers in general since then. I'm still in that adjustment mode.

I think I now know what Paul meant when he said to the Corinthian Church,

1 Cor. 2:2-5
And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God.

"For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified.

And I was with you in weakness, and in fear, and in much trembling.

And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power:

That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God."

The preaching of Jesus Christ and Him crucified is the power of God to justify man by faith.

We may disagree on election and free will, but we share common ground in our justification before God in Christ.

I believe that is where we should place our focus. We can be wrong on all the doctrines, but if we get the purpose of "Jesus Christ and Him crucified" right, then we're going to make it to the finish line.

There are so many in this world that don't have that hope in Christ.

 

[Dylan569]

Charlie, I appreciate your post and I agree. I want to now spend some time in thought, so I can express what comfort the understanding of God's absolute sovereignty gives me. It is not at all the harsh, mean and hateful teaching many think. You wrote "There are so many in this world that don't have that hope in Christ" and I agree. I read in times past a question posed to the 5-point Calvinist, Charles Haddon Spurgeon. "Sir, do you think you'll see John Wesley in heaven?" to which Spurgeon was supposed to have answered something to the effect, "Wesley will be so much closer to the throne than me, I may not be able to see him." I paraphrase from memory.

 

[Charlie24]

Charlie, I appreciate your post and I agree. I want to now spend some time in thought, so I can express what comfort the understanding of God's absolute sovereignty gives me. It is not at all the harsh, mean and hateful teaching many think. You wrote "There are so many in this world that don't have that hope in Christ" and I agree. I read in times past a question posed to the 5-point Calvinist, Charles Haddon Spurgeon. "Sir, do you think you'll see John Wesley in heaven?" to which Spurgeon was supposed to have answered something to the effect, "Wesley will be so much closer to the throne than me, I may not be able to see him." I paraphrase from memory.

While I can't agree with the 5-pt. Calvinist on election, I do agree that doctrine does not determine our salvation.

That is by grace through faith in Christ alone.

 

[Rhema]

 

[Rhema]

We need the well known rule of interpretation: In comparing scripture, when there is a question between verses, the more clear verses take priority and explain the less clear. It is Acts 13:48 that is the most clear verse of the 3 passages. The word "destined" or "ordained" in the KJV, does not mean "disposed" and I know of no version that translates as "disposed" and if such a version could be found, it would be cherry picking to support a prior held belief and imposing on the text one's own thinking rather than accepting the text. Of course we have some on this thread who think they have more scholarship and can translate more accurately than respected translations such as the RV, ASV, RSV, NRSV, NRSVue, etc. "Do you see persons wise in their own eyes? There is more hope for fools than for them." (Prov 26:12 NRSV)

God in his heaven sits and laughs at the pretensions of the truly uneducated. (Especially the ones who cannot admit that they don't know Greek nor have ever studied the language.) Poisoning the well is such a nasty strategy, but it's obvious why you did so.

Acts 13:48 - Not all Gentiles, but only "as many as had been destined, ordained or appointed" became believers. This verse is quite clear to me. But I must understand the next two passages properly.

@Charlie24 - The word so sloppily slung around as "ordained" or "destined" or "appointed" is τάσσω (G5021).

And I provide a LINK to the Liddell Scott Lexicon for τάσσω

A. draw up in order of battle, form, array, marshal​

BUT, note that the verb is passive in voice, and so...

A. Pass., to be drawn up​

And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as believed were drawn up into life eternal.​

(Acts 13:48 KJV-fixed)

But by all means, @Dylan569, you are most welcome to read it for yourself:

ακουοντα δε τα εθνη εχαιρον και εδοξαζον τον λογον του κυριου και επιστευσαν οσοι ησαν τεταγμενοι εις ζωην αιωνιον​

BUT is my understanding more or less reasonable than how they try to evade the clear statement of Acts 13:48?

BUT you can't even read Acts 13:48, let alone understand it.

Is it any wonder that those who have a theological bias will translate a passage to promote that theological bias?

Rhema

 

[Charlie24]

God in his heaven sits and laughs at the pretensions of the truly uneducated. (Especially the ones who cannot admit that they don't know Greek nor have ever studied the language.) Poisoning the well is such a nasty strategy, but it's obvious why you did so.


@Charlie24 - The word so sloppily slung around as "ordained" or "destined" or "appointed" is τάσσω (G5021).

And I provide a LINK to the Liddell Scott Lexicon for τάσσω

A. draw up in order of battle, form, array, marshal​

BUT, note that the verb is passive in voice, and so...

A. Pass., to be drawn up​

And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as believed were drawn up into life eternal.​

(Acts 13:48 KJV-fixed)

But by all means, @Dylan569, you are most welcome to read it for yourself:

ακουοντα δε τα εθνη εχαιρον και εδοξαζον τον λογον του κυριου και επιστευσαν οσοι ησαν τεταγμενοι εις ζωην αιωνιον​

BUT you can't even read Acts 13:48, let alone understand it.

Is it any wonder that those who have a theological bias will translate a passage to promote that theological bias?

Rhema

"@Charlie24 - The word so sloppily slung around as "ordained" or "destined" or "appointed" is τάσσω (G5021)."

I'm sure that anything I present will be "sloppily slung around." How could it be any other way?

The bottom line is that they were "appointed" to eternal life because they believed (the Word of God/vs, 44) that Paul and Barnabas preached.

 

[Curtis]

Everyone, or anyone who believes in Jesus is "appointed" for salvation.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

 

[Charlie24]

Everyone, or anyone who believes in Jesus is "appointed" for salvation.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

John 3:17-18
"For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.

He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."

Clearly here God wants the world to be saved through Christ.

How then can double predestination be true, as Calvin taught it?

Which means God has selected some to eternal life and the rest for eternal separation.

 

[Charlie24]

John 3:17-18
"For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.

He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."

Clearly here God wants the world to be saved through Christ.

How then can double predestination be true, as Calvin taught it?

Which means God has selected some to eternal life and the rest for eternal separation.

I'm not disagreeing with you here, Curtis. Just continuing your thought on the necessity of free will.

 

[Rhema]

The bottom line is that they were "appointed" to eternal life because they believed (the Word of God/vs, 44) that Paul and Barnabas preached.

Hi Charlie,

The bottom line is this is what was written:

And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as believed were drawn up into life eternal.​

(Acts 13:48)

For what's is worth, I don't think "appointed" carries the intended meaning of the author, which is why I gave you the supporting links.

So just what did they believe?

they believed (the Word of God/vs, 44)

Indeed, but "Bible" or "Scripture" is not the message taught here. Surely you don't think verse 44 says:

On the next Sabbath almost the whole city came together to hear the Bible/Scripture.​

(Acts 13:44 ???)

Now if you want to appropriate the adjectives "sloppily slung around" for yourself, just know that I didn't say any such thing about you. So please don't put words in my mouth.

From my perspective (in order to answer my own question about what they believed...)

Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through this Man is preached to you the forgiveness of sins;​

(Acts 13:38 NKJV)

They came to hear the message that the forgiveness of sins is taught through Jesus, not Moses, not Solomon, not Abraham, not the TORAH, (and not any pagan god), but indeed, Jesus was sent as the Messiah to preach the forgiveness of sins to us (cf. Mat. 6:12). Hallelujah.

Blessings,
Rhema

 

[Charlie24]

Hi Charlie,

The bottom line is this is what was written:

And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as believed were drawn up into life eternal.​

(Acts 13:48)

For what's is worth, I don't think "appointed" carries the intended meaning of the author, which is why I gave you the supporting links.

So just what did they believe?

Indeed, but "Bible" or "Scripture" is not the message taught here. Surely you don't think verse 44 says:

On the next Sabbath almost the whole city came together to hear the Bible/Scripture.​

(Acts 13:44 ???)

Now if you want to appropriate the adjectives "sloppily slung around" for yourself, just know that I didn't say any such thing about you. So please don't put words in my mouth.

From my perspective (in order to answer my own question about what they believed...)

Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through this Man is preached to you the forgiveness of sins;​

(Acts 13:38 NKJV)

They came to hear the message that the forgiveness of sins is taught through Jesus, not Moses, not Solomon, not Abraham, not the TORAH, (and not any pagan god), but indeed, Jesus was sent as the Messiah to preach the forgiveness of sins to us (cf. Mat. 6:12). Hallelujah.

Blessings,
Rhema

You know as well as I that Paul taught the Gospel of Christ from the OT Scripture as well as the NT Scripture that was being written.

When they came on the Sabbath day to hear the "Word of God" they came to hear Paul and Barnabas preach the Gospel.

In vs. 47 speaking of Christ, Paul said, "I have set You (Christ) to be a light of the Gentiles, that you should be for salvation unto the ends of the earth."

Paul was quoting from Isaiah 49:6, speaking directly of Christ.

 

[Dylan569]

John 3:16 in 5 literal, word for word translations; showing that the Interlinear NTs themselves do not agree in exact wording. But they help in examining John 3:16 in its use of grammar and definition.

Interlinear TR with KJV by George Ricker Berry
For so... loved... God... the... world... that... his Son... the... only begotten... he gave..., that... everyone... who... believes... on... him... may not perish,... but... may have... life... eternal.

Interlinear EN21 with NIV by Zondervan
For thus... God...loved... the... world,...so as...the...Son...the...only begotten...he gave,...that...everyone...believing ...in...him...may not perish...but...may have...life...eternal.

Interlinear NA27 with NRSV by Tyndale
FOR-THUS LOVED GOD THE WORLD, THAT THE SON, THE UNIQUE ONE, HE GAVE, THAT EVERYONE BELIEVING IN HIM MAY NOT PERISH BUT HAVE LIFE ETERNAL.

Interlinear NA28 with NRSV by Tyndale
FOR-THUS LOVED GOD THE WORLD, THAT THE SON, THE ONLY ONE, HE GAVE, IN ORDER THAT EVERYONE BELIEVING IN HIM MAY NOT PERISH BUT MAY HAVE LIFE ETERNAL.

Interlinear NA28 with ESV by Crossway
in such a way... for... (he) loved... the... God... the... world... so that... the... Son... the... only... he gave... in order that... every... the... one believing... in... him... not... (he)might perish... but... he might have... life... eternal

KJV, "believeth"... verb archaic Third-person singular simple present indicative form of believe

-ing ... forming the present participle of verbs: hearing, noticing, believing
-ing... is an action or process; running, sleeping, believing

-eth... used to form the archaic third person singular present of verbs
-eth... forming the archaic third person singular present indicative tense of verbs

The "singular present indicative tense is" used to describe actions or states that are currently happening or are true at present. It does not indicate a beginning or end of the action or state. Example: Paul is running does not indicate when he started running or when he will stop. Same thing with sleeping, tense does not tell us when it began or when it will end. This is the meaning of "believeth" in the KJV and "believing" in the literal translations.

World = kosmos and the Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon gives 8 different meanings for the Greek kosmos and NOT ONE means every human being, past present and future without exception. In #5 it reads "the inhabitants of the world" particularly "the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human race" a rather comprehensive definition. The Heinrich Meyer Critical and Exegetical NT states:

"τὸν κόσμον] i.e. mankind at large,[163] comp. πᾶς, Joh 3:15; Joh 17:2; 1Jn 2:2."

The RWP reads: "The world (τον κοσμον). The whole cosmos of men, including Gentiles, the whole human race. This universal aspect of God's love appears also in 2Cor 5:19; Rom 5:8."

Schaff's Commentary points out: "The universality of the blessing is marked with twofold emphasis; designed, not for Israel only, but for the whole world, it is the actual possession of every believer."

As the Apostle stated it in Rev. 5:9 "..."by thy blood didst ransom men for God from every tribe and tongue and people and nation"

To paraphrase the verse: "Nicodemus, God so loved not only Jews, but men of every tribe and tongue and people and nation, that he gave his only [unique] Son in order that everyone who is believing should not perish but have eternal life."

The verse is a statement of existing fact based on the love of God for the whole world, not just Jews. Jesus is speaking with a Jew, a Pharisee, a ruler of the Jews, a teacher of Israel; so He is stressing that God loves the entire world of mankind, NOT just the Jews.

John 3:16 is NOT the same as Acts 16:30-31
"Then he brought them outside and said, 'Sirs, what must I do to be saved?' They answered, 'Believe on the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.'” (Acts 16:30-31 NRSV)

 

[Dylan569]

"@Charlie24 - The word so sloppily slung around as "ordained" or "destined" or "appointed" is τάσσω (G5021)."

I'm sure that anything I present will be "sloppily slung around." How could it be any other way?

The bottom line is that they were "appointed" to eternal life because they believed (the Word of God/vs, 44) that Paul and Barnabas preached.

Charlie, how can you twist the grammar of the verse in such a manner:

"When the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and praised the word of the Lord; and as many as had been destined for eternal life became believers." (Acts 13:48 NRSV)

Being destined was prior to those believing. It is clear that the verse is stating that as many as had been destined became believers.

 

[Dylan569]

Everyone, or anyone who believes in Jesus is "appointed" for salvation.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

Curtis, where or how do you find "appointed", or destined or marked out in John 3:16? You are totally reading that into the verse because it does not state that in any manner.

 

[Curtis]

Curtis, where or how do you find "appointed", or destined or marked out in John 3:16? You are totally reading that into the verse because it does not state that in any manner.

1Th 5:9 For God has not destined us for wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ,

Are you saying those (anyone, whosoever) believes in Jesus have NOT been "appointed, destined" for salvation?

 

[Rhema]

You know as well as I that Paul taught the Gospel of Christ from the OT Scripture as well as the NT Scripture that was being written.

How can one preach from something that has not yet been written? (Like..???)

And while Paul no doubt used OT references (of no doubt) he certainly didn't have scrolls of Mat. Mark and Luke lying around. He even said that the gospel he preached was not taught to him by people (and that would include the apostles in Jerusalem).

But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.​

(Galatians 1:11-12 KJV)... I'm sure you know the rest...

Paul was quoting from Isaiah 49:6, speaking directly of Christ.

Just to be clear I have never said that the Word of God was not contained in the Bible.

But I would ask that this particular discussion be continued in the thread that I created for such.

Thanks,
Rhema

 

[Rhema]

Everyone, or anyone who believes in Jesus is "appointed" for salvation.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

Were one to ask "appointed" by whom? One might likely be given the answer "by God," which is the Calvinist position.

Accept it, don't accept it. I don't mind. But for those who have an ear, this is how Acts 13:48 should be rendered in English:

And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as believed were drawn up into life eternal.​

(Acts 13:48)

God bless,
Rhema

 

[Rhema]

KJV, "believeth"... verb archaic Third-person singular simple present indicative form of believe

-ing ... forming the present participle of verbs: hearing, noticing, believing
-ing... is an action or process; running, sleeping, believing

-eth... used to form the archaic third person singular present of verbs
-eth... forming the archaic third person singular present indicative tense of verbs

Well all that sounds great, if it weren't for the fact that the word is a NOUN in Greek.

The "singular present indicative tense is" used to describe actions or states that are currently happening or are true at present. It does not indicate a beginning or end of the action or state. Example: Paul is running does not indicate when he started running or when he will stop. Same thing with sleeping, tense does not tell us when it began or when it will end. This is the meaning of "believeth" in the KJV and "believing" in the literal translations.

Except for the fact that πιστευων is verb DECLINED as Nominative Singular Masculine (meaning a noun)...

How come all your commentary books don't mention this. (Or if they have, why haven't you?)

That said, I laud the effort given to post numerous interlinear renderings, but thought to provide my own (since you hate my Greek so much) for comparison's sake.

ουτως (IN THIS WAY) γαρ (FOR) ηγαπησεν (LOVES) ο (THE) θεος (GOD) τον (THE) κοσμον (COSMOS) ωστε (THAT) τον (THE) υιον (SON) αυτου (OF HIM) τον (THE) μονογενη (ONLY PHYSICALLY BORN ONE) εδωκεν (HE APPOINTED) ινα (IN ORDER THAT) πας (ALL) ο (THE) πιστευων (BELIEVING ONES) εις (INTO) αυτον (HIM) μη (NOT) αποληται (PERISH) αλλ (BUT) εχη (HAVE) ζωην (LIFE) αιωνιον (ETERNAL).​

Finally, I would mention that there is a rather significant herd mentality amongst translators. (Something I do not share.)

Kindly,
Rhema

 

[Rhema]

ουτως (IN THIS WAY) γαρ (FOR) ηγαπησεν (LOVES) ο (THE) θεος (GOD) τον (THE) κοσμον (COSMOS) ωστε (THAT) τον (THE) υιον (SON) αυτου (OF HIM) τον (THE) μονογενη (ONLY PHYSICALLY BORN ONE) εδωκεν (HE APPOINTED) ινα (IN ORDER THAT) πας (ALL) ο (THE) πιστευων (BELIEVING ONES) εις (INTO) αυτον (HIM) μη (NOT) αποληται (PERISH) αλλ (BUT) εχη (HAVE) ζωην (LIFE) αιωνιον (ETERNAL).

(Drat... forgot the subjunctive....)

ουτως (IN THIS WAY) γαρ (FOR) ηγαπησεν (LOVES) ο (THE) θεος (GOD) τον (THE) κοσμον (COSMOS) ωστε (THAT) τον (THE) υιον (SON) αυτου (OF HIM) τον (THE) μονογενη (ONLY PHYSICALLY BORN ONE) εδωκεν (HE APPOINTED) ινα (IN ORDER THAT) πας (ALL) ο (THE) πιστευων (BELIEVING ONES) εις (INTO) αυτον (HIM) μη (NOT) αποληται (MIGHT PERISH) αλλ (BUT) εχη (HAVE) ζωην (LIFE) αιωνιον (ETERNAL).

 

[Charlie24]

Charlie, how can you twist the grammar of the verse in such a manner:

"When the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and praised the word of the Lord; and as many as had been destined for eternal life became believers." (Acts 13:48 NRSV)

Being destined was prior to those believing. It is clear that the verse is stating that as many as had been destined became believers.

That's true and I agree, but let's see what was "destined/appointed" for those in Acts 13:48.

1 Tim. 2:3-4
"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;

Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth."

First we must establish that God wants all men/women to be saved. There can be no doubt here that God wants ALL men/women to be saved. But all men/women will not be saved because of free will and the God given choice to accept or refuse His sacrifice for sins.

Now let's take a look at how God provides that salvation.

When you were saved, Dylan, before you were born, before God created this universe, through His foreknowledge He knew the very day you would be born into this world, and the very day you would believe and accept Christ as your Savior

He provided for you a day when you would hear the Gospel, that moment in history was designed specifically for you. It was not by chance that you were there at that appointed time to hear that Gospel, or that the person who provided that Gospel for you did their part.

"and as many as were ordained/appointed to eternal life believed."

The same thing took place in Acts 13:48. It was not by chance that Paul and Barnabas were there preaching the Gospel, it was not by chance that those particular people were there to hear that Gospel.

It was God's appointed moment for those particular people to hear the Gospel, it was the provision by God for those who would believe to be saved. This moment was predestined before the foundation of the world, just as your moment was predestined.

"and as many as were ordained/appointed to eternal life believed."

As many in that crowd whose moment had come for salvation, totally provided by God through His foreknowledge, believed and were saved.