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What Is Blaspheming the Holy Ghost?

By sowing doubts towards believers that they even have the Holy Spirit since salvation when they had believed in Jesus Christ at the calling of the gospel, just because they do not speak in tongues? How is that keeping the faith, let alone defending the faith in Jesus Christ? I'd say it is not, but the polar opposite, brother.

When you had first believed in the Lord Jesus Christ and that God has raised Him from the dead, you were saved and had been born again of the Spirit by faith in Jesus Christ, not by a sign of tongues.

When you had sought salvation by the receiving of the Holy Spirit, to me that is you seeking to receive the promise not by faith in Jesus Christ but by sight & by the sign of tongues. Comes across to me as a different gospel.
Its the faith of (coming from) Jesus the labor of his fathers love .Not our faith we have towards him. We cannot have faith in or towards him unless he the the first works that cause us to hear the words of the father .The word of God that works in us to both revel his will and empower dying mankind to perform it to His good pleasure .(Philippians 2:13 -14 )

No faith coming from him no power to perform it to his good pleasure

Note . . .(PURPLE) my aded opinion to keep a point of interest.

Philippians 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, (death) but that which is (alone) through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith. ( his labor of love)
 
I would offer. . Its every spirit that understands the tongue of God's prophecy . There is no understanding that comes from sounds without meaning. The clanging of brass or wood spoons banging on a kettle. .

Just exactly what are you trying to protect? Sounds without instructions ?

No such thing as "sign gifts"( self edifying) .Spiritual gifts not seen yes .We walk by the eternal faith never by sight, the temporal





Nosuch thing as a sign gift . remebt wonderingis notbeliving
Sign gifts exists but only towards the unbelievers but even they are understanding the wonderful works of God in their native language, even though not every one that hears that in their native tongue, believes.

1 Corinthians 14:20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.

21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.

22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
 
Its the faith of (coming from) Jesus the labor of his fathers love .Not our faith we have towards him. We cannot have faith in or towards him unless he the the first works that cause us to hear the words of the father .The word of God that works in us to both revel his will and empower dying mankind to perform it to His good pleasure .(Philippians 2:13 -14 )

No faith coming from him no power to perform it to his good pleasure

Note . . .(PURPLE) my aded opinion to keep a point of interest.

Philippians 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, (death) but that which is (alone) through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith. ( his labor of love)
Since faith is one of the fruits of the Spirit ( Galatians 5:22-23 ) which are by Jesus Christ ( Philippians 1:11 ) and our believing in Him is the work of the Father ( John 6:44 & Matthew 11:25-27 & John 6:37-40 ) the very fact that we believe in Him is how we know we had received the promise of the Spirit by faith in Jesus Christ; Galatians 3:14 and that is how we are all identified as children of God by that faith in Jesus Christ note verse 26 in Galatians 3:24-29
 
Since faith is one of the fruits of the Spirit ( Galatians 5:22-23 ) which are by Jesus Christ ( Philippians 1:11 ) and our believing in Him is the work of the Father ( John 6:44 & Matthew 11:25-27 & John 6:37-40 ) the very fact that we believe in Him is how we know we had received the promise of the Spirit by faith in Jesus Christ; Galatians 3:14 and that is how we are all identified as children of God by that faith in Jesus Christ note verse 26 in Galatians 3:24-29
Yes, prophecy alone not clanging together of brass, senseless sounds .
 
Why is believing in the gospel of Jesus Christ not enough that you had to ask to receive the holy Spirit?
The scriptures say to ask.

(Luke 11:13 KJV) If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?​

Did you ask? (Not a hard question.)

Rhema
 
I'd say that once you had received the holy Ghost at your salvation, you will not ask for Him again les you make the Father look evil as if He did not give you the Holy Ghost the first time.
Interpretive presumption. Plain and simple. What scripture would say that this "makes the Father look evil"?

Rhema
 
I'd say that once you had received the holy Ghost at your salvation, you will not ask for Him again les you make the Father look evil as if He did not give you the Holy Ghost the first time.
Repeating a false doctrine over and over still does not make it true.

Rhema
 
The scriptures say to ask.

(Luke 11:13 KJV) If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?​

Did you ask? (Not a hard question.)

Rhema

Can we ask him if he is not working in those born again from above . .. to the both reveal and empower us ? (the law of faith)

Where can he be found ?

Is there any difference between us giving gifts to our children and he giving gifts to us ? doesnot work

We are to call no man on earth father
 
According to sounds without understanding?
When I am praying in tongues - praying in the Holy Spirit - I am not praying for your ears nor for your understanding;
payer is between me and God my Father through Christ Jesus by His holy Spirit:
1Cor 14:2 For who speaketh in a tongue speaketh not to men, but to God; for no one heareth; but in spirit he speaketh mysteries.
And God does indeed understand my prayers very well (and responds).
 
When I am praying in tongues - praying in the Holy Spirit - I am not praying for your ears nor for your understanding;
payer is between me and God my Father through Christ Jesus by His holy Spirit:
1Cor 14:2 For who speaketh in a tongue speaketh not to men, but to God; for no one heareth; but in spirit he speaketh mysteries.

So you are speaking mysteries to God? How can there be any mysteries to God? may He help you see why you should give pause for how you are applying that verse to mean, For what he says in mysteries, it can only be for himself and those around him when he is speaking in tongues since there are no mysteries to God.

If you look at this verse in context of a practice in the church;

1 Corinthians 14:26 How is it then, brethren? when ye come together, every one of you hath a psalm, hath a doctrine, hath a tongue, hath a revelation, hath an interpretation. Let all things be done unto edifying. 27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. 28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

How can Paul have that person be silent in church when there is no interpretation when at the end of the chapter he said not to forbid speaking in tongues?

How can anyone hear the practice of 2 or 3 speak in tongues while another interpret if others in the congregation are speaking in tongues "quietly" as some modern day tongue speakers seem to be applying that verse to mean. If people are annoyed when those next to them are even whispering as it is distracting them from the sermon, and that is today with the sound system, how can any one back then tolerate that?

So in context, when there is 2 or 3 speaking in tongues one by one and another interpret, if someone rose up & spoke and yet there is no interpretation, it means that is a foreigner visitor speaking out of turn for why he is to be instructed to be actually "silent" in the assembly for while that practice is going on. That is also proof that tongues are not for private use.

As it is, the person speaking out of turn by the fact that Paul testified he is speaking to himself and to God means he understands what he is saying as God does NOT that he is actually talking to himself as if a crazy person and thus not actually speaking to God either, but he is to be silent in the church because he does not know what is going on when 2 or 3 speak in a foreign language one by one as manifested by the Holy Ghost while one interprets.


Understanding how Paul was speaking in his day in that verse 2 is not about the tongue speaker speaking TO God but that he does not understand what he is saying but God does because it is manifested by the Holy Ghost.

And the point of verse 2 in comparing tongues against prophesy is for Paul to prove to those zealous for spiritual gifts to seek the gift of prophesy over all spiritual gifts because tongues is not a stand alone gift because it needs interpretation for the tongue speaker to understand it for that tongue to actually be fruitful as in beneficial to himself.

And God does indeed understand my prayers very well (and responds).

But you do not understand it and how can you know if He had responded when you know not what was supposedly prayed for?

How can you tell the difference between self edification and worship, and giving thanks, & praying TO God if you know not what that tongue for private use is doing? Is that not the epitome of confusion? Yet God cannot be the author of it.

Better to pray normally to know what you had prayed for so when God answers your known prayers, you can give the Father your genuine heartfelt thanks knowingly in Jesus's name also.
 
So you are speaking mysteries to God? How can there be any mysteries to God?
Again and again you prove to us here that you know nothing about being a Spirit-filled disciple.
The verse is about tongues being a mystery to men (and women) because humans do not understand what is being said to God by the Spirit.
That is why later in the chapter Paul again reiterates this when he states that he can pray in the Spirit and also pray with understanding (praying in an earthly language that his mind knows).
And this Pentecostal saints do as well.

1Cor 14:15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
 
Better to pray normally to know what you had prayed for so when God answers your known prayers, you can give the Father your genuine heartfelt thanks knowingly in Jesus's name also.
There are no bounds to your cessationist nonsense.
 
There is no line of discernment when it comes to you testing the spirits,
And yet as a Spirit-filled Pentecostal Christian I have full access to the gifts of the Holy Spirit - including discerning of spirits: a gift I have exercised from time to time as needed.
1Cor 12:10 and to another workings of powers; and to another prophecy; and to another discernings of spirits: to another kinds of tongues; and to another interpretation of tongues;
 
And yet as a Spirit-filled Pentecostal Christian I have full access to the gifts of the Holy Spirit - including discerning of spirits: a gift I have exercised from time to time as needed.
1Cor 12:10 and to another workings of powers; and to another prophecy; and to another discernings of spirits: to another kinds of tongues; and to another interpretation of tongues;
Then why is it that the manifestations of such phenomenon like holy laughter is seen in Christian churches that has been in Khundalini which existed before Pentecost? Where is the discerning of spirits there, brother?

John 7:7 The world cannot hate you; but me it hateth, because I testify of it, that the works thereof are evil.

1 Thessalonians 5:21 Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. 22 Abstain from all appearance of evil.

How can Paul call sinners out of Khundalini in his days if the phenomenon can also be found in Christianity?


Did Spencer in this video applied discerning of spirits here below?

 
Yeah... I don't think so.


Rhema
The origin of Khundalini has been linked to yoga for why it does not place it before Pentecost as far as internet search engines goes,

But the Bible places the phenomenon before Pentecost.

Proverbs 25:26 A righteous man falling down before the wicked is as a troubled fountain, and a corrupt spring. 27 It is not good to eat much honey: so for men to search their own glory is not glory. 28 He that hath no rule over his own spirit is like a city that is broken down, and without walls.

Hints of this truth found in scripture can be found on the internet search engine though.

Kundalini Yoga | Where it comes from? / History

Quoting from link: ~~~~ "It is said that Kundalini Yoga was originally used in India by the warrior class in the Sikh religion.
However, an examination of mystical literature and traditions showed that Kundalini, called by various names, seems to have been a universal phenomenon in esoteric teachings for perhaps three thousand years.
Kundalini-type descriptions or experiences are found in esoteric teachings of the Egyptians, Tibetans, Chinese, some Native Americans, and Africa." ~~~~ End of Quote

When alcohol was introduced to The American Indians, it reminded them of their communing with the "Great Spirit" how they dance and chant for the Great Spirit to come much like Christians do today for the holy Spirit to come to get drunk with "joy" in the Spirit, except without the dancing part to invoke that phenomenon.

John 7:7 The world cannot hate you; but me it hateth, because I testify of it, that the works thereof are evil.

1 Thessalonians 5:21 Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. 22 Abstain from all appearance of evil.

How can Christians call sinners out of Khundalini in these latter days if the phenomenon can also be found in Christianity? How could Christians know that these sinners had repented from Khundalini & other related phenomenon?

That is why all invitations in coming to God the Father points to the Son John 14:6 and why only honoring the Son is the only ay to honor the Father as we will be judged in that way ( John 5:22-23 ) because by keeping on going to the Son is the only way believers will not seek the Holy Spirit since He dwells in us so that we are not led astray by spirits of the antichrist when they come into the worship place to take their eyes off of Christ, the Son of God by signs & lying wonders.
 
The origin of Khundalini has been linked to yoga for why it does not place it before Pentecost as far as internet search engines goes,
Wow... that is a very convoluted sentence.


But the Bible places the phenomenon before Pentecost.
Both the Spirit of man, and the ability of people to laugh and enjoy the creation of God goes back to the very first people.

That seems to surprise you.

Rhema
 
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