Why Hebrews?

[NetChaplain]

Why does the Lord Jesus (and the writers of the NT) express a variance in significance between the revelation to the OT saints and that to the NT saints? It is because the prior led to the latter and the contrast between them enhances the importance of each, with the Gospel revelation being superior in ministry (but same in Scriptural significance—2 Tim 3:16, 17) to that of the legal revelation, with the intent to move the believer on into things that have to do with “regeneration” (Mat 19:28; Titus 3:5).

Gill writes, “The intention of this epistle (Hebrews) being to demonstrate the superior excellency of the Gospel revelation to the legal one, the apostle begins with the divine author of it, in which they both (OT/NT) agree, and observes that in other things they differ. The revelation under the law was made in times past, the Gospel revelation in these last days; the former was made to the Jewish fathers that were of old, the latter to the then present Apostles; the one was made at sundry times, and in divers manners, the other was made at once, and in one way; the one was made by the prophets of the Lord, the other by His own son, Hebrews 1:1 and therefore the latter must be the more excellent.”

-NC
Why Hebrews?

“Why the book of Hebrews? What had the Hebrews that others (rest of the world—NC) had not, and that rendered it necessary to address an epistle in particular to them?

God had revealed Himself to the people. Over 2,000 years before Christ, God, having called Abraham in Mesopotamia, brought him to the land of Canaan and covenanted with him to give it to him and his seed. His son Isaac followed, bestowing upon Jacob his son the blessing of Jehovah.

Twelve sons of Jacob (then Israel) headed the twelve tribes of Israel, whom Moses led forth from Egypt through the wilderness, Jehovah their God revealing Himself to the nation in a marvelous way at Mount Sinai, and there announcing a Law-Covenant with the nation. God gave Moses specific directions concerning the construction of the tabernacle in the wilderness, in the Holy of Holies of which, when completed, Jehovah manifested His presence.

By a pillar of cloud by day and fire by night He led them on, Joshua, Moses, minister, bringing them into the Promised Land, Canaan. Their history under the judges and the kings has been clearly set forth in the Word of God. After their being captives for seventy years on account of disobedience, God restored them from Babylon, more than five hundred years before Christ, when they rebuilt, humbly, their temple.

Note this: To no other nation did God ever give a religion. Romans 9:4, 5 is literally true: “Israelites, whose is the adoption (as God’s earthly nation), and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the Law, and the (religious) service, and the promises; whose are the fathers, and of whom is Christ as concerning the flesh, Who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.” Of course, God coming to them brought about the religion, with is sacrifices, laws, feasts, and directions for everyday life, as to worship, meats, and the many ordinances which ruled the Hebrew’s life.

Now we find the book of Hebrews taking these things away and setting before them the Melchizedek priesthood (not at all after Aaron’s order), which involved the disannulling of the Law and of the whole manner of life of the Hebrew, setting before them the Lord Jesus Christ, risen from among the dead, the great High Priest at the right hand of God, in whom all his hopes are. It is no longer religion, but simple faith in the accomplished work of Christ the Son of God.

One might ask, What about “Church truth” in this book of Hebrews? What about the glorious revelations of the believer’s position in Christ, member of His Body, seated with Him in the heavenlies, having died with Him and been raised in identification with Him: Also, what about the glorious privileges of the believer (sealed by and indwelt with the Spirit of God, as he is), the privileges of being filled with that Spirit and being able to say with Paul, “To me to live is Christ”?

Well, you will find in the book of Hebrews but one hint of the glorious truth God gave Paul to unfold concerning the Church of God. That hint is in chapter 3:1: “partakers of the heavenly calling.” But not a word as to union with Christ, unless indeed it be at the very end: “The God of peace, who brought again from the dead the Great Shepherd of the sheep with the Blood of an eternal covenant, even our Lord Jesus, make you perfect in every good thing to do His will, working in you that which is well-pleasing in His sight through Jesus Christ” (13:20, 21)!

This is of course not because the Hebrew believers had no share in this glorious heavenly truth—by no means! They certainly had that share (in the types and shadows of the sacrificial ordinances, which were symbolic of Christ’s Cross-work—NC). But they had already a God-given religion. This would ever be coming between them and the blessed, glorious finished work of Christ. So the book of Hebrews takes that religion from the Hebrews, leaving them only the Lord Jesus Christ.

- Wm R Newell



L S Chafer comments that, “The Church does not appear in the OT. As something new in God’s provision for Jew and Gentile, the true Church and some of its unique characteristics are spoken of by Paul as mysteries. These mysteries were withheld from the OT saints, but are freely revealed to NT believers, hence the Church is not found in the OT. These mysteries include the Church itself, its Head, its message of grace, the body of Christ as an organism made up of saved Jews and Gentiles, indwelt by Christ as “the hope of glory” (Col 1:27), its ministry controlled by the Lord Himself, its ultimate removal from the earthly scene by resurrection and translation, and its approaching marriage as the Bride of the Lamb. Not a hint of these things appears in the OT. On the contrary, this is the ethnic group which the Lord spoke of when He said, “I will build My Church”; an accomplishment which was still future at the time of its announcement. Never does Scripture confuse it with Israel—past, present or future.”


None But The Hungry Heart

 

[B-A-C]

I've always thought that Hebrews explained the similarities rather than the differences.

There was no church in the OT, but there was a group called 'God's chosen people". It was the nation of Israel.
The Jews, weren't always a physical nation, sometimes they were simply nomads roaming around looking for a home.
Gentiles could become one of God's people in the OT by adhering the commandments and getting circumcised.

In the New testament, we have this thing called the church, it isn't just the Jews, it's everyone. But we are still called 'God's people'.
In the Old testament, if you sinned, there needed to be a confession, and a sacrifice done by a priest. In the Old testament, the sacrifice
was usually animals. ( Heb 9:22; Deut 17:1; ) The animal had to be in prime condition, not aged, or sick, or blind, or lame.
Exod 12:5; Lev 9:3; Lev 1:3; Lev 1:10; Lev 3:1; Lev 3:6; Lev 4:3; Lev 4:23; Lev 4:28;
Lev 4:32; Lev 5:15; Lev 5:18; Lev 6:6; Num 6:14; Num 29:2; Deut 15:21; Mal 1:8; etc...
In the New testament, if we sin, we should still confess (1 Jn 1:9; ), but not to an earthly priest. We now have a perfect sinless high priest. ( Heb 4:14-16; )
There still needs to be sacrifice for our sins performed by a priest. But not an animal ( Heb 10:4; ) but a perfect spotless lamb.
(who wasn't a lamb 1 Pet 1:19; John 1:29; )
We no longer have to go to an earthly priest every time we sin, ( Heb 9:28; Heb 10:10; )
We no longer have to be physically circumcised, but now need to be spiritually circumcised. ( Rom 2:28-29; )
The law was moved from stone tablets to our hearts. ( Heb 10:16; Jer 31:33; Ezek 36:26; Deut 30:6; )
Jesus didn't come to abolish the law, but to fulfill it. ( Matt 5:17; Luke 16:17; )

 

[NetChaplain]

There was no church in the OT, but there was a group called 'God's chosen people". It was the nation of Israel.

Hi BAC - The article focuses on the "mystery," which concerns the position of Christ being in the believer and the believer in Him, which was not mentioned in the prior dispensation, which also Jesus mentioned but did not disclose (John 14:20; Mat 16:18). This the Lord Jesus chose to disclose through Paul, hence the reason why it was never revealed until then.

The law was moved from stone tablets to our hearts. ( Heb 10:16; Jer 31:33; Ezek 36:26; Deut 30:6; )

There exists a difference in beliefs between Christians concerning the consistency of Israel; those who think Israel in the present dispensation is made up of all believers (is actually the Church), and those who believe that Israel in the present dispensation still includes only those of Abraham's posterity.

Scripture is not abundantly clear on this matter (though there is much content concerning it), but my belief at present is the former, because all the usages of the word Israel are within the context of those who are of Abraham's posterity, with Romans 11:25 being one of the primary proclamations defining this difference.

Therefore, concerning the matter of God's law being written in the mind and on the heart of Israel, these can not refer to include any believing Gentile, nor any believing Jew. The matter concerning the differences of understanding about saved Israel's eternity and the Church's eternity is of great importance because it affects some (maybe much) of the spiritual growth of the believer, requiring prayer, patience and much Word-study to address it.

 

[B-A-C]

Hmm.. if it's not any Jews or Gentiles, that doesn't really leave anyone does it?

I believe there is a law of Christ, or a law of the Spirit if you prefer. Rom 8:2;
First, what is love? 1 Cor 13; gives a fair description.
Who should we love? God and our neighbors. Who is our neighbor? Jesus was asked that and his answer was the story of the good Samaritan. Luke 10:25-37;
How should we love? The 10 commandments were meant to be a guide. Both Peter and Paul said if you're doing the 10 commandments, basically you are loving your neighbor. Matt 22:37-40; Rom 13:8-10; Matt 19:17-19;

 

[NetChaplain]

Hmm.. if it's not any Jews or Gentiles, that doesn't really leave anyone does it?

The unbelieving Jews are Israel, and the believing Jews and Gentiles are the Church. The Abrahamic promise (Jer 31; Eze 36) to his posterity will go primarily to those remaining in the nation of Israel at Christ's next advent (concerning which Scripture is unclear).

The 10 commandments were meant to be a guide.

I believe the TCs were to address Israel only at the time they were given until Christ, and that the TCs addressed particular sins which they were having the most difficulties with. The TCs do not include all sins, but were directed to a certain people concerning predominant sins.

 

[NoHype]

The OP makes several wrong assumptions. "Legal revelation"? What's that?

That kind of idea doesn't apply to what God gave Israel's prophets to write down in the Old Testament books about The Gospel of Jesus Christ. Just as our Lord Jesus told the scribes and Pharisees at the end of John 8 that Abraham saw Christ's day, and Abraham was glad, and Apostle Paul said those of Faith are the children of Abraham (Gal.3). Paul showed the Promise by Faith was first given to Abraham, showing that the Promise of Salvation through Christ was always first, even 430 years before the giving of God's law through Moses, for Moses wasn't even born yet then.

The "mystery" that Apostle Paul described was that God's Salvation would extend to the believing Gentile. That's what the OT prophets didn't yet understand. So clearly they had to have already known about God's Salvation through God's promised Messiah that was to come, and they did know about that promise already, which is the same Gospel of the New Testament, which is why our Lord Jesus' first coming fulfilled those things God had already given His OT prophets to write down.

So what about the Jews then that rejected our Lord Jesus? Did they not know what God had told His OT prophets about His coming? Yes, the majority of the Jews then did know, and expected His coming even, as informed by God through His OT prophets (like Isaiah especially). The Gospel of Jesus Christ actually begins in the Book of Genesis and is written of throughout both Old and New Testament Books. Just because we don't see Christ Jesus' Name in English back in the Old Testament Books that supposed to mean God didn't reveal Him to them? God forbid.

The reason why the majority of the Jews then refused Christ Jesus at His first coming, and many of them still do today, is because God blinded them so the "mystery" Paul spoke of about God's Salvation extending to the Gentiles who would believe on The Son Jesus Christ Whom The Father sent (Rom.11).

To show that our Heavenly Father was also Just in doing that blindness upon the Jews, their rebellion against Him by their allowing pagan crept in unawares to rise to the scribe and priest positions showed a major problem the Jews had allowed to occur (1 Chron.2:55 and Gen.15 about the Kenites who became scribes in Israel; Ezra 2 about the Nethinims and foreigner priests). It caused Judah to fall into the traps of men's commandments and traditions outside God's Word which those crept in unawares had created by taking what God had given Israel through Moses and modifying it to create their own religion (things like the Babylonian Talmud dogma). This is why our Lord Jesus was so angry with many of the scribes and Pharisees, because He knew many of them were not even born of Israel, His Word not sent to them because they were of the old pagan Canaanites that became bondservants unto Israel and then worked their way up to those positions.

Back then, even at Christ's first coming, the majority of the Jews had to rely on what those scribes and Pharisees taught because of their being in those positions to interpret God's Word for the people. Does one really think none of the scribes and Pharisees that our Lord Jesus rebuked didn't understand who He was? Some of them understood, which is why their fathers killed many of the prophets sent beforehand, and why also they wanted to kill Jesus, because what God had foretold about Messiah coming through His OT prophets was in danger of coming to pass when Jesus came among them.

In essence then, what does this show about the difference between what God had given Israel about The Gospel per His OT prophets vs. what those crept in unawares of the scribes and Pharisees were up to? It shows the majority of Jews then didn't stand a chance at rightly believing on Jesus then because of the falseness those false Jews had setup over the people. That falseness wasn't about God's law, it was about their abuse of what God had given Israel through Moses. This is even why Abraham in Luke 16 gave the following answer to the rich man in final who wanted to go back down to earth to warn his Jewish brethren about that hell...

Luke 16:28-31
28 For I have five brethren; that he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place of torment.
29 Abraham saith unto him, "They have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them."
30 And he said, "Nay, father Abraham: but if one went unto them from the dead, they will repent."
31 And He said unto him, "If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead."
(KJV)

So let's not confuse what God had given already per His OT prophets with what those false Jew scribes and Pharisees were up to, because most of them then didn't truly represent God's people, nor what all God gave through His prophets. Likewise it still is with many unbelieving Jews today, they are required to heed the priests in charge of interpretation of Scripture to them, and they don't really determine that themselves, and thus The Gospel pointers in the Old Testament to Christ's first coming are often purposefully left out to them.

 

[NetChaplain]

That kind of idea doesn't apply to what God gave Israel's prophets to write down in the Old Testament books about The Gospel of Jesus Christ

The OT prophets did not foretell the Gospel concerning Christ being within man and man being in Christ (the Church).

 

[NoHype]

The OT prophets did not foretell the Gospel concerning Christ being within man and man being in Christ (the Church).

You really mean the understanding our Lord Jesus personally imparted to His Apostles and disciples concerning what the OT prophets wrote of Him. Jesus explained that to His disciples, but it never means it wasn't first written down in the Old Testament Books, for it was, even the idea of the "mystery" Paul taught was written in the Old Testament first:

Isa 42:6-7
6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
(KJV)


About the idea of being 'in Christ', or Christ in the believer, that was written too, just not in the way that the Apostles covered it. But it's what they were talking about:

Heb 10:15-21
15 Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
20 By a new and living way, which He hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, His flesh;
21 And having an high priest over the house of God;
(KJV)


Where did The Holy Spirit testify that in the Old Testament? Right here:

Jer 31:31-34
31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which My covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put My law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be My people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, "Know the LORD": for they shall all know Me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
(KJV)

(I believe as many scholars that Apostle Paul wrote the Book of Hebrews through Luke's penmanship, dictating to Luke and Luke writing in his own style.)

Since Apostle Paul is quoting... the Jeremiah 31 Scripture to teach that subject of the Hebrews 10 verses, then how can one say those ideas in Hebrews 10 didn't first originate back in The Old Testament???

I admonish brethren to get a study Bible that reveals every time in The New Testament when Scripture from The Old Testament Books are being quoted. By that one will be very surprised at how many ideas taught by Christ's Apostles originate from written Old Testament Scripture. Even many things our Lord Jesus showed Apostle John in His Revelation have their first origin in the Old Testament Books.

What this means for us today, Christ's Church, is that we can now go back in study of The Old Testament Books and discover The Gospel of Jesus Christ first written about, even starting in the Book of Genesis chapter 3.

 

[NetChaplain]

You really mean the understanding our Lord Jesus personally imparted to His Apostles and disciples concerning what the OT prophets wrote of Him. Jesus explained that to His disciples, but it never means it wasn't first written down in the Old Testament Books, for it was, even the idea of the "mystery" Paul taught was written in the Old Testament first:

Hi Brother - Again, the theme of the article does not concern the coming of Christ, which was first foretold in Genesis 3:15, but the indwelling of Christ in believers (Church), which is nowhere mentioned prior to His coming (Col 1:27). This will be the difference in the blessings of saved Israel and the saved Church (John 20:29).

The OT prophecies of Christ's coming concerned His deliverance from sin for His people, and though this involves the indwelling of one another, this "mystery" was not revealed in the OT. This is why Paul terms it a mystery--not yet revealed.

 

[B-A-C]

Hi Brother - Again, the theme of the article does not concern the coming of Christ, which was first foretold in Genesis 3:15, but the indwelling of Christ in believers (Church), which is nowhere mentioned prior to His coming (Col 1:27). This will be the difference in the blessings of saved Israel and the saved Church (John 20:29).

I guess it depends on what you consider the indwelling of Christ to be.
Deut 6:6; "These words, which I am commanding you today, shall be on your heart.
Deut 11:18; "You shall therefore impress these words of mine on your heart and on your soul; and you shall bind them as a sign on your hand, and they shall be as frontals on your forehead.
Prov 6:20; My son, observe the commandment of your father And do not forsake the teaching of your mother;
Prov 6:21; Bind them continually on your heart; Tie them around your neck.
Jer 31:33; "But this is the covenant which I will make with the house of Israel after those days," declares the LORD, "I will put My law within them and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.

John 1:14; And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Rom 2:9; There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Gentile,
Rom 2:10; but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Gentile.
Rom 2:11; For there is no partiality with God.

 

[NetChaplain]

I guess it depends on what you consider the indwelling of Christ to be.
Deut 6:6; "These words, which I am commanding you today, shall be on your heart.
Deut 11:18; "You shall therefore impress these words of mine on your heart and on your soul; and you shall bind them as a sign on your hand, and they shall be as frontals on your forehead.
Prov 6:20; My son, observe the commandment of your father And do not forsake the teaching of your mother;
Prov 6:21; Bind them continually on your heart; Tie them around your neck.
Jer 31:33; "But this is the covenant which I will make with the house of Israel after those days," declares the LORD, "I will put My law within them and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.

Hi BAC - This group is in reference to the law and Israel.

John 1:14; And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Even this passage does not disclose His indwelling, which is to follow. Jesus' indwelling was first mention by Himself (John 14:20; Mat 16:18), but He did not disclose the details until He used Paul for its disclosure. The significance concerning the indwelling of Christ formulates the Church, His Body and Bride. The Jer/Eze prophecies of latter day Israel do not include the blessing of being in Christ (God will be their God and they His eternal people). Those in Christ will involve God being their God, and also their Father, and they, His children, instead of just His people.

 

[B-A-C]

Hi BAC - This group is in reference to the law and Israel.

I'm not really disputing that here. (We can debate if the law was only for the Jews another time).
You said the indwelling of Christ was not mentioned in the Old Testament.
What I was pointing out was, God told them certain things would be written on their hearts. Is your heart not within you?
If the Word is Jesus, and Jesus dwells in your heart...

Some people call it "the indwelling of Christ", others call the same thing the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit (or Spirit of God) was mentioned
several times in the Old Testament. ( Gen 6:3; Exod 31:3; Exod 35:31; Num 11:25-26; Num 11:29; Num 24:2; Num 27:18; Judges 3:10;
Judges 6:34; Judges 11:29; Judges 14:6; 1 Sam 10:6; 1 Sam 11:6; 1 Kings 18:12; 2 Chron 15:1; 2 Chron 24:20; Nehemiah 9:20; Psalms 51:11;
Psalms 139:7; Isaiah 11:2; Isaiah 61:1; etc...

I guess I would ask what is the difference between having the Holy Spirit come "upon" you, and having Him dwell within you?
Perhaps one is temporary and the other is permanent, but either way, it's the Holy Spirit.

 

[NetChaplain]

If the Word is Jesus, and Jesus dwells in your heart...

I do not mean the written Word but the living Word, Jesus himself--through the Spirit. I prefer not to use the figurative allegory that the Word of God is the Lord Jesus.

 

[B-A-C]

I do not mean the written Word but the living Word, Jesus himself--through the Spirit. I prefer not to use the figurative allegory that the Word of God is the Lord Jesus.

Heb 4:12; For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart.

1 Pet 1:23; for you have been born again not of seed which is perishable but imperishable, that is, through the living and enduring word of God.

Jas 1:21; Therefore, putting aside all filthiness and all that remains of wickedness, in humility receive the living word implanted, which is able to save your souls.

 

[NetChaplain]

Hebrews 4:12, 1 Peter 1:23 and James 1:23 is in reference to the written word, or the translators and Bible commentators would be required to capitalize the "w," as in other passages which reference the Lord Jesus as the Word. And Scripture itself is not active, it is the Spirit of God that gives it life for salvation, i.e. "faith come by . . . hearing the word of God."

I know your intentions are good, but it could be we are discussing different concepts.

 

[DHC]

Hmm.. if it's not any Jews or Gentiles, that doesn't really leave anyone does it?

I believe there is a law of Christ, or a law of the Spirit if you prefer. Rom 8:2;
First, what is love? 1 Cor 13; gives a fair description.
Who should we love? God and our neighbors. Who is our neighbor? Jesus was asked that and his answer was the story of the good Samaritan. Luke 10:25-37;
How should we love? The 10 commandments were meant to be a guide. Both Peter and Paul said if you're doing the 10 commandments, basically you are loving your neighbor. Matt 22:37-40; Rom 13:8-10; Matt 19:17-19;

Hello B-A-C.

Sorry to trouble you B-A-C and I really do not want to interfere with what
you believe. You have the right to believe and interpret the scripture as you
see fit. But I must comment on what you claimed in your post.

Here is what you said B-A-C;

Both Peter and Paul said if you're doing the 10 commandments, basically you are
loving your neighbor.

Now please correct me if I am wrong B-A-C. When I read (Romans 13:8-10) I get
the exact opposite interpretation that you arrived at. You are definitely stating that
obeying the law results in loving your neighbor. Whereas my reading is that love fulfills
the requirements of the law.


Romans 13
8 Owe nothing to anyone except to love one another; for he who loves his neighbor
has fulfilled the law. 9 For this, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder,
You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment,
it is summed up in this saying, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does
no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

Paul says 'love is the fulfillment of the law', Paul does not say obeying the ten commandments
is loving your neighbor.

 

[james1523]

Romans 13
8 Owe nothing to anyone except to love one another; for he who loves his neighbor
has fulfilled the law. 9 For this, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder,
You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment,
it is summed up in this saying, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does
no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

Paul says 'love is the fulfillment of the law', Paul does not say obeying the ten commandments
is loving your neighbor.

The 10 commandments are the negative commands, the love commands are the positive commands. Both achieve the same result.
Consider, if breaking the commandments is not a loving thing to do, then surely keeping the commandments is a loving thing to do.
I do not see how keeping the commandments is not loving your neighbor?

 

[B-A-C]

Now please correct me if I am wrong B-A-C. When I read (Romans 13:8-10) I get
the exact opposite interpretation that you arrived at. You are definitely stating that
obeying the law results in loving your neighbor. Whereas my reading is that love fulfills
the requirements of the law.


Romans 13
8 Owe nothing to anyone except to love one another; for he who loves his neighbor
has fulfilled the law. 9 For this, “You shall not commit adultery, You shall not murder,
You shall not steal, You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment,
it is summed up in this saying, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does
no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

What Paul is saying here is... if you are doing these things you ARE loving your neighbor.
In other words, if you are stealing from, lying to, committing adultery with, or murdering your neighbor.. you aren't loving them.
If you are loving them, you aren't doing these things. I especially like that translation. "summed up". What is the sum? It is the answer
to the question... "what is all of these things added together?"
Do not murder + do not lie + do not steal + do not commit adultery = love.

Matt 5:17; "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill.
Matt 5:18; "For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
Matt 5:19; "Whoever then annuls one of the least of these commandments, and teaches others to do the same, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Luke 18:18; A ruler questioned Him, saying, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?"
Luke 18:19; And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.
Luke 18:20; "You know the commandments, 'DO NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, DO NOT MURDER, DO NOT STEAL, DO NOT BEAR FALSE WITNESS, HONOR YOUR FATHER AND MOTHER.'"
Matt 19:17; And He said to him, "Why are you asking Me about what is good? There is only One who is good; but if you wish to enter into life, keep the commandments."


1 Cor 7:19; Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but what matters is the keeping of the commandments of God.

1 Jn 2:3; By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments.
1 Jn 2:4; The one who says, "I have come to know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him;

Again, Jesus is saying if you are doing these two things, you are keeping the commandments.

Matt 22:37; And He said to him, " 'YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND.'
Matt 22:38; "This is the great and foremost commandment.
Matt 22:39; "The second is like it, 'YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.'
Matt 22:40; "On these two commandments depend the whole Law and the Prophets."

On these two commandments - you are doing the Law.

 

[B-A-C]

Hebrews 4:12, 1 Peter 1:23 and James 1:23 is in reference to the written word, or the translators and Bible commentators would be required to capitalize the "w," as in other passages which reference the Lord Jesus as the Word. And Scripture itself is not active, it is the Spirit of God that gives it life for salvation, i.e. "faith come by . . . hearing the word of God."

Then why do all of those verses which are lower care "w" say it is living and active?

 

[NetChaplain]

Then why do all of those verses which are lower care "w" say it is living and active?

One can eliminate the distinctions between the written word and the Word, being Christ, and still retain it as an inerrant doctrine, for the two are inseparable, but to be useful towards instruction and doctrine, the distinction is required and proper.

The written word of God is the means (not the life force) by which the Spirit of God (which is the life force) "quickens" what it discloses. This is what is meant by "they are spirit, and they are life" (John 6:63; also Pro 4:22).