we have been delivered from the law
So ummm...remind me...who are the real Jews again?
So today then, does the "Jewish" law only apply to quote: all of the people of the Hebrew language/nation and no-one else?The term "Jew" in it's first use would be those born into the tribe Judah, then later applied to the kingdom of Judah while the seceding ten tribes retained the name or term Israel, then during their captivity it was extended to all of the people of the Hebrew language/nation. :wink:
So murder, lying, theft, idolatry etc is only unlawful for the Jew, but no-one else?With the exception of Judaism/Israeli proselytes, yes.
So murder, lying, theft, idolatry etc is only unlawful for the Jew, but no-one else?
Now you are beginning to see....there is no such thing therefore, as I said earlier, as a "Jewish" law. They are the laws of God, revealed to the Hebrew nation at Sinai, most of which apply universally to all peoples, nations, tongues.Is it unlawful for an Australian to commit murder? If so is it because they are bound to the Jewish law?
Do you adhere to the law of Moses (Jewish law)?
Now you are beginning to see....there is no such thing therefore, as I said earlier, as a "Jewish" law. They are the laws of God, revealed to the Hebrew nation at Sinai, most of which apply universally to all peoples, nations, tongues.
There are parts of that law which did specifically apply to the Hebrew nation however, they were the civil laws, which clearly cannot be applicable to us today. That doesn't mean though that all the law is thus irrelevant.God's laws as it applies to the context of man's best interest to obey is eternal and applicable to everyone. Why would God abrogate laws that are in our best interest to obey? Were they not first given because God loves us and wants the best for us? That particularly includes the moral laws of the Ten Commandments, and the principles found in the health laws. The apostles taught adherence to both...examples from Paul include, (and I paraphrase) get a job and pay your own way instead of bludging or stealing from the church (2 Thess. 3:10)....don't throttle your cow nor eat your steak rare...()
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By design all sin unless sin has been done away with.1. Can a non-Jewish person sin?
Romans 14:23 And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.If the answer is "yes", what determines what the sin is?
Even if the answer was no they would not know the way to God.If the answer is "no", why do they need Jesus?
Sin means missing the mark,those without a mark have nothing to miss.But since we know that all have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God I would venture to say that every man must have had a mark that they missed.
Unbelief is sin because believing God is the mark.
Even if the answer was no they would not know the way to God. (Is Jesus God himself? This is under dispute by some on TJ).
It seems it would vary from person to person depending on their beliefs
Jesus came that we may have life and that we would have it more abundantly.
You just hit the questions I have come to,exactly."missing the mark".. hmmm.. what mark? What determines what the mark is? What determines what the target is?
If eternal life is about not being sent to hell for eternity then I understand the question.But eternal or timeless life is for the nowbecause it is Knowing God.Without God we are trapped in time and servants to our five senses and the logic that streams them together."They wouldn't know the way to God" - If I never sin, why do I need God?
I think your right on both counts and you have them in the correct order.Abundant life could be taken a number of ways, first maybe it means a fuller richer life. Plenty of non-believers live a full rich life.
Second maybe it means a longer (eternal) life.
They do indeed...the Ten Commandments were written on stone and stored inside the ark...denoting their permanence...the laws of Moses (so-called but they were in reality God's laws also) were written on paper or parchment or whatever and stored beside the ark...That is a separation if ever there was one.The scriptures make no such separation of the law.
Depends on what you term 'the law of Moses'. Certainly the apostles taught obedience to the laws of God contained in the Ten Commandments...they also taught that converted Gentiles refrain from eating blood (like rare steak). Paul also taught that we ought to glorify God in our bodies because our bodies are the temples of the Holy Spirit. Does alcohol, tobacco, drugs, unclean foods glorify God?The apostles did not teach adherence to the law of Moses. Where did they teach Christians to stone adulterers and murderers?
No-where does Romans 7 state that the law died. Jesus said that so long as heaven and earth remain, so will the law. Romans 7 is simply teaching that the law no longer condemns those in Christ, because in Him we live and have faith and hope and redemption and forgiveness. However, if we should step outside of Christ through a deliberate and premeditated decision to turn away from Him and like the dog return to its vomit, the law is back in effect because we are no longer 'in Christ'.You are misunderstanding the scriptures and the new covenant. Your trying to mix parts of the old covenant with Israel into the new covenant.
For the record this is what Paul taught.
1 Now, dear brothers and sisters —you who are familiar with the law—don’t you know that the law applies only while a person is living?2 For example, when a woman marries, the law binds her to her husband as long as he is alive. But if he dies, the laws of marriage no longer apply to her.3 So while her husband is alive, she would be committing adultery if she married another man. But if her husband dies, she is free from that law and does not commit adultery when she remarries.
4 So, my dear brothers and sisters, this is the point: You died to the power of the law when you died with Christ. And now you are united with the one who was raised from the dead. As a result, we can produce a harvest of good deeds for God.5 When we were controlled by our old nature, sinful desires were at work within us, and the law aroused these evil desires that produced a harvest of sinful deeds, resulting in death.6 But now we have been released from the law, for we died to it and are no longer captive to its power. Now we can serve God, not in the old way of obeying the letter of the law, but in the new way of living in the Spirit
Romans 7:1-6 (NLT)
However, if we should step outside of Christ through a deliberate and premeditated decision to turn away from Him and like the dog return to its vomit, the law is back in effect because we are no longer 'in Christ'.
By our refusal to repent of certain sins we reveal we are not in Him...His death and resurrection is of no avail...the law still has dominion...it still condemns. In no way does the death and resurrection of Christ free us from obedience to God's commandments.
Let's cut to the chase. What you are suggesting, and several others also, is that a Christian can sin with impunity. The laws of God have no jurisdiction so to speak, for the Christian they are null and void. God's grace is sufficient to cover even deliberate premeditated murder, regardless of the killers willingness to repent or not. Please tell me this is not so, but it sure sounds like, because for years now I have been constantly non-plussed at the determination by so many professed Christians to find any reason to avoid obedience, even to claiming that the laws of God are no longer valid. I wonder some times what it is so many are afraid of? What is it about the commandments of God that are so objectionable to so many? My only conclusion is that there is something they are doing wrong which they cherish, and in attempting to justify it they claim "no law, therefore no sin!".hi brakelite, i have couple questions for you please...
can you back these underlined statements with scripture?
isnt it God's grace that we are in christ at the first place? i doupt anyone can put them self in christ by obedience. especially because salvation is of grace and not of works.
if Christ died for sins, why certain sins would forbid grace from us? and where you get the list of those sins?
does not God's grace give us forgiveness on knowing God's will and carrying it out as well?
if God's commandments can be efficently carried out in spirit and sins are forgiven then not knowing God's will must be also forgiven. as our capability to carry out commandments depends on many things like our godliness. But if we are saved by grace and not how godly we are then why would God judge us of not being good servants?
i believe its fully grace we are saved regardless of our response or effort. if that's so then keeping God's commandments cant be determining factor of our salvation.
God bless.
Romans 6:16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves as servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?
Obedience sure can't get you to heaven, but disobedience sure can get you to hell.
Sorry BAC for this detour...short answer...yes, Gentiles can sin...the laws of God apply universally...they need a Saviour. I know this because I am a Gentile saved by grace because I was once a sinner.
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You just hit the questions I have come to,exactly.
Sorry BAC for this detour...short answer...yes, Gentiles can sin...the laws of God apply universally...they need a Saviour. I know this because I am a Gentile saved by grace because I was once a sinner.