TRANSLATION ERRORS IN MODERN BIBLES

[Richard Aberdeen]

That was their EXCUSE- it was used almost 7,000 times in the OT!
And there you go with the great "I AM" Hoax.

Why do you call this a "hoax" when both Exodus 3:14 and later Jesus repeats John 8:58, that God told Moses to tell the Hebrew slaves that "I am" sent you??? Why did Jesus says, "truly, truly I say unto you, before Abraham existed, I am."

 

[DoYouREALLYthinkThat?]

Ex 3:14- God said to Moshe, “Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh [I am/will be what I am/will be],” and added, “Here is what to say to the people of Isra’el: ‘Ehyeh [I Am or I Will Be] has sent me to you.’” -CJB

Exodus 3:14 in which God gives his name as אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה‎, Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh, translated most basically as "I am that I am" or "I shall be what I am". These usages have been the subject of significant Christological analysis.

Biblical Hebrew lacked specific tenses but had an aspectual system, with the perfect denoting completed actions and the imperfect denoting ongoing actions. The word “Ehyeh” is the first-person singular imperfect form of “hayah,” indicating the future tense “I will be.” However, it lacks the prefix “wa-” typically used for the future tense in Biblical Hebrew, adding some ambiguity to its translation. Therefore, the phrase “Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh” can be understood not only as “I am that I am” but also as “I will be what I will be” or “I will be who I will be.”

So you see, Richard, that it involved more that just "I am". Even Jesus when he said it meant "I existed" - for he DID exist in Moses day!