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TRANSLATION ERRORS IN MODERN BIBLES

:sob:
That was their EXCUSE- it was used almost 7,000 times in the OT!
And there you go with the great "I AM" Hoax.
Why do you call this a "hoax" when both Exodus 3:14 and later Jesus repeats John 8:58, that God told Moses to tell the Hebrew slaves that "I am" sent you??? Why did Jesus says, "truly, truly I say unto you, before Abraham existed, I am."
 
Ex 3:14- God said to Moshe, “Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh [I am/will be what I am/will be],” and added, “Here is what to say to the people of Isra’el: ‘Ehyeh [I Am or I Will Be] has sent me to you.’” -CJB

Exodus 3:14 in which God gives his name as אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה‎, Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh, translated most basically as "I am that I am" or "I shall be what I am". These usages have been the subject of significant Christological analysis.

Biblical Hebrew lacked specific tenses but had an aspectual system, with the perfect denoting completed actions and the imperfect denoting ongoing actions. The word “Ehyeh” is the first-person singular imperfect form of “hayah,” indicating the future tense “I will be.” However, it lacks the prefix “wa-” typically used for the future tense in Biblical Hebrew, adding some ambiguity to its translation. Therefore, the phrase “Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh” can be understood not only as “I am that I am” but also as “I will be what I will be” or “I will be who I will be.”

So you see, Richard, that it involved more that just "I am". Even Jesus when he said it meant "I existed" - for he DID exist in Moses day!
 
Ex 3:14- God said to Moshe, “Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh [I am/will be what I am/will be],” and added, “Here is what to say to the people of Isra’el: ‘Ehyeh [I Am or I Will Be] has sent me to you.’” -CJB

Exodus 3:14 in which God gives his name as אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה‎, Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh, translated most basically as "I am that I am" or "I shall be what I am". These usages have been the subject of significant Christological analysis.

Biblical Hebrew lacked specific tenses but had an aspectual system, with the perfect denoting completed actions and the imperfect denoting ongoing actions. The word “Ehyeh” is the first-person singular imperfect form of “hayah,” indicating the future tense “I will be.” However, it lacks the prefix “wa-” typically used for the future tense in Biblical Hebrew, adding some ambiguity to its translation. Therefore, the phrase “Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh” can be understood not only as “I am that I am” but also as “I will be what I will be” or “I will be who I will be.”

So you see, Richard, that it involved more that just "I am". Even Jesus when he said it meant "I existed" - for he DID exist in Moses day!
According to a Hebrew scholar who writes for the Britannica, the Hebrew means "I am, I shall be, repeated to infinity." I'm not going to argue with you because I'm not a Hebrew scholar.

What Jesus says in John 8:58 is in the same book as John 1:1, which clearly says Jesus is God. And again, the reason that people took up stones to throw at Jesus is because he claimed to be God. Jesus, the son of God, has always existed.
 
I agree with you- just as you quoted with the other variations.
Jesus was speaking Greek (Translations) and the " I am" was commonly used.
Like "I am coming over". Not mean as a Name- especially the one time his God and Father used it.
 
That's no correct. Jesus says "before Abraham existed", I am. That is much different than just saying I am. Even Neil Diamond sings "I am, I said", but he doesn't claim to have existed before Abraham. There is a huge difference.
 
That's no correct. Jesus says "before Abraham existed", I am. That is much different than just saying I am. Even Neil Diamond sings "I am, I said", but he doesn't claim to have existed before Abraham. There is a huge difference.
Neil Diamond? LOLOLOO Yes God's son lived in Abrahams day. That was he said , not "I AM" translated incorrectly.
 
Neil Diamond? LOLOLOO Yes God's son lived in Abrahams day. That was he said , not "I AM" translated incorrectly.
God's son is God and has always existed. Apparently, you need to read John 1:1 a more carefully (see bold): "In the beginning was the logos and the logos was with God and the logos was God. . .and the logos became flesh and lived among men."
 
God's son is God and has always existed. Apparently, you need to read John 1:1 a more carefully (see bold): "In the beginning was the logos and the logos was with God and the logos was God. . .and the logos became flesh and lived among men."
You haughtiness is showing...

Col1:15- He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation. -RSV
Rev 3:14- And to the angel of the church in La-odice′a write: ‘The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God’s creation.'
 
That's Trump's Make America Grotesque Again cult. You quoted from Colossians while ignoring what it says in John, chapter 1, verse 1.
 
Stay on topic or I'll lock it for posting anything else.

With the Love of Christ Jesus.
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Nick
\o/
 
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