There is no question to me as to the accuracy of the translators
There should be...
Compare these two verses:
From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.
(Matthew 4:17 KJV)
From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say: Do penance, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.
(Matthew 4:17 DRB)
(Need I say more?)
.
Most Christians are probably aware that the New Testament texts were originally written (perhaps published is a better term) in Greek. But they are probably not aware that the New Testament does not read like Modern Greek,
nor the ancient texts of the Greek philosophers and novelists (such as Plato and Homer). The dialect of Plato is called “classical” Greek (also Attic Greek), and only academic knowledge of Attic Greek was available to the King James translators. Since the advance of archeology in the very late 1800’s, we now know quite a bit more about the dialect of Greek in which the NT was written. This is called Koine (or common / colloquial) Greek. The NT, instead of being written for the scholar, was written for the common man, and I proffer this link for your perusal:
In addition:
“One man is to be given the credit for the discovery of the Koine – a German pastor named Adolf Deissmann. Even though one or two perceptive scholars had noted the true character of NT Greek as early as the middle of the nineteenth century, their statements made no impression on general opinion. Deissmann, on a visit to a friend in Marburg, found a volume of Greek papyri from Egypt, and leafing through this publication, he was struck by the similarity to the Greek of the NT. He followed up this observation with continued study, and his publications of his findings finally led to general acceptance of the position that the peculiarities of the Greek NT were, for the most part, to be explained by reference to the nonliterary Greek, the popular colloquial language of the period. He first published his results in two volumes of Bible Studies (1895, 1897) and later on in the justly popular Life from the Ancient East (1908).”
- The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible, pg. 486.
Kind of makes you wonder why some Christians fight so fiercely for the KJV if the translators didn’t quite have a handle on the language in which it was written.
So-- you're assumption was incorrect.
HAHA Got me... (feeling pleased?) In that you hadn't provided a quote, I did indeed think you were speaking about something else.
actually-- the verse I was referring to is
Acts 2:38. Peter is speaking.
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
(Acts 2:38 KJV)
But Peter is also speaking here:
Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.
(Acts 10:47-48 KJV)
And here too - (no?) :
The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
(1 Peter 3:21 KJV)
And Peter even clarified that Baptidzo didn't mean "washing".
But who is speaking here ?? :
He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
(Mark 16:16 KJV)
Well, we've wandered quite a bit from your OP (but since this was your thread, I just followed your lead). You posted a polemic on how one is saved, yet omitted baptism from this. Now we have four verses that show baptism is required for salvation. How do you deal with that? Most Christians just ignore it, content to sit in their pew and play church. Still, though, we have no New Testament description of just how baptism was accomplished, and therefore the only conclusion that can be drawn is:
At this point, one may be only able to resolve this issue by referring to the documents and practices of the early Church Fathers.
Rhema