Dave M
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- Oct 2, 2015
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Below is your blasphemy and contradiction of scripture:
what a shame you allowed emotion and name calling into this conversation I am done
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SignUp Now!Below is your blasphemy and contradiction of scripture:
@bibleguy
What is an unfruitful believer according to scripture?
You presented:
“James 4:17 plainly says that when you do wrong, you SIN.”
I would agree; we know James was speaking to Jews on their level in their terms (1Co. 9:20). They did not have the revelation knowledge we have today. This is why God’s Grace is sufficient.
What is the definition of sin according to the Torah? I’m sure it’s missing the mark.
I believe any wrong doing is of Satan, but it’s not sin in God’s eyes. As I’ve said, “sin is missing the mark.” Believers have no mark to miss, because we are not justified by the law. A person can only sin if they are justified by the law (Rom.3:19, 20); this is the principle understanding scripture gives. If the law tells you you sin, then you sin. The law cannot tell me I sin. Believers are justified by Jesus Christ who took all man’s sins upon Himself. The Judicial Law to told a person they've sinned; believer are not justified by the Judicial Law of Moses. It cannot tell a believer they've sinned.
I’ve presented factual, scriptural information that specifically says what Jesus did regarding sin. You cannot refute “ANY” of those scriptures I’ve presented to you.
I have asked you to present a scripture that teaches, "the penalty of sin has been removed, but sin is still applicable;" you haven't. The simplicity is Jesus came into the world to save sinners from sin (Eph.2:5); below you purposefully contradicted what scripture said. You didn't contradict what I said.
I’ve presented to you many scriptures that teach what Jesus did regarding man’s sins. You’ve made the choice to reject the scriptural references that I’ve place with factual scriptures. You’ve added conflicting carnal knowledge to express how you've interpreted scripture.
G264 (sin)
hamartanō
Perhaps from G1 (as a negative particle) and the base of G3313; properly “to miss the mark” (and so not share in the prize), that is, (figuratively) “to err”, especially (morally) to sin: - for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
What did Jesus say He save you from? (Mat. 1:21; Eph. 2:5; 1Ti 1:15)
What did Jesus say He healed you from? (1Pe. 2:24; Mar. 2:17; Isa.33:24)
What did Jesus say He sanctified you from? (Acts 26:18)
What did Jesus say He made you free from? (Rom. 6:7, 18, 22; 8:2)
What did Jesus say He “put away” from you and cancelled? (Heb. 9:26) (Put away Greek definition: G115; cancel, disannul)
What did Jesus say He cleansed you from? (1Jo. 1:7, 9)
What did Jesus say He washed you from? (Acts 22:16; Rev. 1:5)
What did Jesus say He redeemed you from? (Heb. 9:12; Eph. 1:7; Col. 1:14
Was it said when Jesus came he would make an end of sins? (Dan. 9:24)
Above are my references that Jesus saved man from sin:
Below is your blasphemy and contradiction of scripture:
So sure, you are "saved" from sin, but you sometimes still sin.
Sure, your sins are "blotted out", but you sometimes still sin.
You are "free from sin", but you sometimes still sin.
You are "cleansed from sin", but you sometimes still sin.
You are "sanctified from sin", but you sometimes still sin.
what a shame you allowed emotion and name calling into this conversation I am done
Bibleguy,
Let me clarify for you seeing you are taking what I say out of context.
1. "I would agree; (It plainly says when a person does wrong it's sin) I am not agreeing that I or any believer sins) (James was speaking to "Jews" on their level in their terms) (1Co. 9:20). "They did not have the "revelation knowledge we have" today. This is why God’s Grace is sufficient."
2. I believe any wrong doing is of Satan, but it’s not sin in God’s eyes. (Why? because God is not imputing sin to believers)
3. As I’ve said, “sin is missing the mark.” Believers have no mark to miss, because we are not justified by the law.
If we will continue, please do not take what I say out of context.
Thank you
Bibleguy,
We can leave it as is. My points qualify themselves. The Spirit of God will qualify truth in the hearts of those that love Him.
Did you get my post on 1John 3:9?
@All Viewers
This post is about 1John 1:
Who was John speaking to? (Gal. 2:7-9)
Verse 1: We know John was talking about Jesus Christ. John wrote the book of the Gospel of John.
Verse 2: The Jews (John’s Brethren) those who he was talking to did not know or have the understanding of Jesus Christ; this is why John was bearing witness (1Joh. 1:1) or proclaiming unto them Jesus Christ (John 20:19-23).
Verse 3: Again John was declaring and announcing to these Jews knowledge of Jesus Christ, that they may have “fellowship” with Him as well as God His Father. If a man does not have fellowship with the Son, they do not have fellowship with the Father (Joh. 14:6; 1Jo. 1:3; 2:22-24; 2Jo. 1:9).
Verse 4: John realizes his brethrens need the joy of The Lord; without Christ they have no joy (we are not talking about the joy of the world) (Joh. 16:20, 21; 17:13).
Verse 5: John begins to thoroughly explain to these Jews what the message is concerning this God and His Son Jesus whom they have not known. John teaches them that God is light and there is no darkness (sin) in Him at all. This is the second time John expresses declaring something unto these Jews (because they didn’t know). This was done because these listeners are not saved. This is John’s witness to get them born again.
Verse 6: John explains a man cannot say they have fellowship with God or His son and walk in darkness (sin); they’re lying; (John just said “verse 5,” there is no darkness (sin) in God at all); they are not doing or telling the truth.
Verse 7: John starts to reveal to these Jews what they need to do in order to have fellowship with God and His Son. If they walk in the light of Jesus Christ is light, they can have fellowship with God, His Son and with John (Joh. 8:12; 12:46). This is how their joy can be full; and the blood of Jesus will cleanse them of “all” their sins. A man cannot be in the body of Christ with sins (there is no sins in Jesus); this is why Jesus will cleanse a man first before placing them in His body.
Verse 8: If a man says they have no sin they’re deceiving themselves. A believer can say they have no sin without deceiving themselves. Jesus just told these Jews, He will cleanse them of “all” their sins. Once these Jews are cleansed they “can say” they have no sin. An unbeliever can never say they have no sin and they will be deceiving themselves because have not been cleansed (Heb. 10:11, 12, 14, 17, 18). Verse 7 does not specify a time of how long the cleansing agent last, but Hebrews 10 does.
Verse 9: John explains to these Jews the cleansing process whereby they can say, they have no sin. If they confess their sins God is faithful and just to forgive them of "all" their sins and cleanse them of "all" unrighteousness (1Jo. 1:7; Rom. 10:9, 10)
Verse 10: If a person says they have “not sinned,” (past tense for believer, present tense for unbelievers) they make God a liar and His word is not in them (Rom. 3:4; 3:23).
@Ivar,
1Jo 5:17 All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death.
1Jo 5:18 We know that whosoever is "born of God" "sins not"; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one touches him not.
G264 (sin)
hamartanō
Perhaps from G1 (as a negative particle) and the base of G3313; properly “to miss the mark” (and so not share in the prize), that is, (figuratively) to err, especially (morally) to sin: - for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
1Jo 3:9 Whosoever is born of God "does not commit sin"; for his seed remains in him: and he "cannot sin", because he is born of God.
@Dave M, @bibleguy, @Ivar,
Do New Covenant believers miss the mark?
What is missing the mark (sin) under the Mosaic Law?
From the Cambridge Dictionary: To fail to achieve the result that was intended:
Are believers required, under the New Covenant, to achieve any standard of living that was imposed upon the children of Israel, through justification of the law (1Cor. 15:56;Rom. 7:6, 8)? Which if not fulfilled would result in immediate judgment because of “sin” or “missing of the mark?”
Paul said, “I had not known sin but by the law (Rom.7:7). What law was Paul referring to?
Hebrew definition of sin:
H2398 (sin)
châṭâ'
A primitive root; properly “to miss”; hence (figuratively and generally) to sin; “by inference to forfeit,” “lack,” expiate, repent, (causatively) lead astray, condemn: - bear the blame, cleanse, commit [sin], by fault, harm he hath done, loss, miss, (make) offend (-er), offer for sin, purge, purify (self), make reconciliation, (cause, make) sin (-ful, -ness), “trespassive”
Greek definition of sin:
G264 (sin)
hamartanō
Perhaps from G1 (as a negative particle) and the base of G3313; properly “to miss the mark” (and so not share in the prize), that is, (figuratively) to err, especially (morally) to sin: - for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
Under the Mosaic Law, Israel had to obey every commandment that was given unto them by The Lord. Any commandment Israel unintentionally or intentionally did not keep, “sin” was imputed unto them because they failed to achieve God’s requirement through keeping His commandments. THEY MISSED THE MARK (Num. 15:28, 29). Israel was under/justified/married to/bound by the Law of Mosses (Rom. 3:19; Deu. 27:26); New Covenant believers (the Church of Christ) is not; because believers in Christ do not miss the mark nor sin.
Because of man, God treated JESUS as if He missed the mark for every man that has ever lived; and sentenced Him to die for the "sin" of the world; from Adam unto the cross (Heb. 9:15; Joh 1:29).
God imputed all man's sins upon Jesus, and equally imputed the penalty that fit the crime for man's sins; which was death.
On the cross when Jesus said, it is finished, and He died giving up the ghost, sin and death were equally condemned. (Rom. 8:2; 1Pet.2;24;Isa.53:4,5,8-12; 2Cor. 5:21) Neither sin nor death can resurrect themselves as Jesus did on the third day.
Every believer that confesses they still sin has resurrected sin in their heart and their mind refusing to believe that sin and the penalty for sin has been crucified and condemned on the cross equally (Rom. 8:2. 3).
Because of sin and death having been condemned in the sight and mind of God, he has stated He will not impute sin to man because He has imputed it unto His Son Jesus Christ. In God’s mind sin and the penalty is condemned. Unless man sees life as God sees it, they will continue to walk in a fleshly mindset (Rom. 3:4; 8:5).
@regibassman57@regibassman57
I noticed you had nothing in verse 16 highlighted and you omitted verse 15.
How does verse 15 and 16 play an overall role in 1 John 5 and it's understanding?
1Jn 5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.
1Jn 5:17 All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death.
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